LSAT阅读全真题选编

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注：这部分LSAT阅读是silentwings的好友LITTLE COW传来的，分别对应于“黄皮书”的SECTION18——22，由于版权问题，这里不提供答案，实在抱歉，我实在无能为力。这里列出仅供参考，大家若有兴趣可以自己去东方或小贩那儿买书，希望大家谅解，如果有大牛（比如“花儿”等）可以提供答案及解析的话，请补上。鉴于很多G友关心LSAT文章，现在silentwings可以告诉大家具体购书可以参考：
上海：同济大学门外的书贩，有兜售；复旦南区国年路上，有书贩兜售
北京：清华大学地下书市；新东方总部门口书摊
（以上信息来自silentwings的同学，具体细节不清楚）
另外大家可以在网上书店或出卖旧资料的人手里获得。
最后祝大家顺利突破阅读关！
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——silentwings
2003年12月27日于丹徒

SECTION 1
Directions: Each passage in this section if followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question, However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

　　The fairness of the judicial process depends on the objective presentation of facts to an impartial jury made up of one's peers. Present the facts, and you have a fair trial

　　(5)However, fact-finding, especially for interpersonal disagreements, is not so straightforward and is often contaminated by variables that reach beyond the legal domain.

　　(10)A trial is an attempt to transport jurors to the time and place of the disputed event, to recreate the disputed event, or at least to explain that event with maximum accuracy. A trial falls short of this goal, however.

　　(15)because it presents selected witnesses who recite selected portions of their respective memories concerning selected observations of the disputed event. These multiple selections are referred to as the abstraction process.

　　(20)Limitations in both perception and memory are responsible for the fact that the remembered event contains only a fraction of the detail present during the actual event, and the delay between observation and

　　(25)recitation causes witnesses' memories to lose even more of the original perceptions. During the course of a trial, a witness's recitation of the now-abstracted events may reflect selected disclosure based on his or her

　　(30)attitudes and motivations surrounding that testimony. Furthermore, the incidents reported are dependent on the lines of inquiry established by the attorneys involved. Accordingly, the recited data are a
　　
　　(35)fraction of the remembered data, which are a fraction of the observed data, which are a fraction of the total data for the event. After the event that led to the trial has been abstracted by participants in the trial, jurors

　　(40)are expected to resolve factual issues. Some of the jurors' conclusions are based on facts that were directly recited; others are found inferentially. Here another abstraction process takes place. Discussions during deliberations.

　　(45)add to the collective pool of recalled evidentiary perceptions; nonetheless, the jurors' abstraction processes further reduce the number of characteristics traceable to the number of characteristics traceable to the original event.

　　(50)Complication can arise from false abstractions at each stage. Studies have shown that witnesses recall having perceived incidents that are known to be absent from a given event. Conversely, jurors can remember

　　(55)hearing evidence that is unaccounted for in court transcripts.Explanations for these phenomena range from blas through prior conditioning or observer expectation to taully reportage of the event based on the event based on the

　　(60)constraints of alnguage. Aberrant abstractions in perception or deliberate, but reliability is nevertheiess diluted. Finally, deliberate untruthfulness has always

　　(65)been recognized as a risk of testimoniat evidence. Such intentionally false inaccuracies produced by the abstraction process.
　
　　1. In this passage, the author's main purpose is to

　　(A) discuss a process that jeopardizes the famness of jury trials
　　(B) analyze a methodology that safeguards the individual's right to fair trial
　　(C) explain why jurors should view eyewiness testimony with skepticism
　　(D) defend the trial-by-jury process, despite its limitations
　　(E) point out the unavoidable abuses that have crept into the judicral process

　　2.The author considers all of the following obstacies to a fair trial EXCEFT

　　(A) selective perceptions
　　(B) faulty communications
　　(C) partial disclosures
　　(D) intentional falsifications
　　(E) too few abstractions
　　3.The author would most likely agree that the abstraction process occurs in the judicial process primarily because

　　(A) some jurors' conclusions are based on facts rather than on inferences
　　(B) remembered events depend upon an undividual's emotions
　　(C) human beings are the sources and users of data presented in trials
　　(D) it is difficult to distinguish between deliberate faisenood and unintentional selected disclosure
　　(E) witnesses often dispute on eanother's recoliections of events

　　4.It can be inferred that the author believes the ability of juries to resolve factual issues is

　　(A) Lmited by any individual juror's tendency to draw inferences from the facts presented during the trial
　　(B) Overwhelmed by the collective pool of recalled evidentiary perceptions
　　(C) Unaffected by the process of trying to reenact the event leading to the trial
　　(D) Dependent upon the jury's ability to understand the influence of the abstraction process on testimony
　　(E) Subject to the same limitations of perception and memory that affect witnesses
　
　　5.With which one of the following statements would the author most likely agree?

　　(A) If deliberate untruthfulness were all the courts had to contend with, jury trials would be fairer than they are today.
　　(B) Lack of moral standards is more of an impediment to a fair trial than human frailty.
　　(C) The bulk of the inaccuracies produced by the abstraction process are innocently presented and rarely have any serious consequences.
　　(D) If the inaccuracies resulting from the abstraction process persist, the present trial-by-jury system is likely to become a thing of the past.
　　(E) Once intentional falsification of evidence is eliminated from trials, ensuring an accurate presentation of facts will easily follow.
　
　　6.The author's attitude toward the abstraction process that occurs when witnesses testify in a trial can best be described as

　　(A) confident that witnesses can be conditioned to overcome many limitations of memory
　　(B) concerned that it may undermine witnesses ability to accurately describe the original event in dispute
　　(C) critical of witnesses' motivations when delivering testimony
　　(D) indifferent toward the effect the abstraction process has on testimony
　　(E) suspicious of witnesses' efforts to describe remembered events truthfully
　
　　7.Given the information in the passage, the actual event that is disputed in a jury trial is most like

　　(A) a group of job applicants that is narrowed down to a few finalists
　　(B) a subject that is photographed from varjed and increasingly distant vantage points
　　(C) scraps of fabric that are sewn together to make an intricately designed quilt
　　(D) a puzzle that is unsystematically assembled through trial and error
　　(E) a lie that is compounded by additional lies in order to be maintained

　　a medical article once pointed with great alarm to an increase in cancer among milk drinkers. Cancer, it seems, was becoming increasingly frequent in New England,

　　(5) Minnesota, Wisconsin, and Switzerland, where a lot of milk is produced and consumed, while remaining rare in Ceylon, where milk is scarce. For further evidence it was pointed out that cancer was less frequent in some

　　(10)states of the southern United States where less milk was consumed. Also, it was pointed out, milk-drinking English women get some kinds of cancer eighteen times as frequently as Japanese women who seldom drink milk

　　(15)A little digging might uncover quite a number of ways to account for these figures but one factor is enough by itself to show them up. Cancer is predominantly a disease that strikes in middle life or after. Switzerland

　　(20)and the states of the United States mentioned first are alike in having populations with relatively long spans of life. English women at the time the study was made were living an average of twelve years longer than

　　(25)Japanese women.Professor Helen M. Walker has worked out an amusing illustration of the folly in assuming there must be cause and effect whenever two things vary together. In investigating the

　　(30)relationship between age and some physical characteristics of women, begin by measuring the angle of the feet in walking. You will find that the angle tends to be greater among older women. You might first consider whether

　　(35)this indicates that women grow older because they toe out, and you can see immediately that this is ridiculous. So it appears that age increases the angle between the feet, and most women must come to toe out more
　
　　(40)as they grow older.
　　
　　Any such conclusion is probably false and certainly unwarranted. You could only reach it legitimately by studying the same women-or possibly equivalent groups-over a period of

　　(45)time. That would eliminate the factor responsible here, which is that the older women grew up at a time when a young lady was taught to toe out in walking, while the members of the younger group were
　
　　(50)learning posture in a day when that was discouraged.
　　
　　When you find somebody-usually an interested party-making a fuss about a correlation, look first of all to see if it is not (55) one of this type, produced by the stream of events, the trend of the times. In our time it is easy to show a positive correlation between any pair of things like these: number of students in college, number of inmates

　　(60)in mental institutions, consumption of cigarettes, incidence of heart disease, use of X-ray machines, production of false teeth, salaries of California school teachers, profits of Nevada gambling halls. To call some one

　　(65)of these the cause of some other is manifestly silly. But it is done every day.

　　8.The author's conclusion about the relationship between age and the ways women walk indicates he believes that

　　(A) toeing out is associated with aging
　　(B) toeing out is fashionable with the younger generation
　　(C) toeing out was fashionable for an older generation
　　(D) studying equivalent groups proves that toeing out increases with age
　　(E) studying the same women over a period of time proves that toeing out increases with age.

　　9.The author describes the posited relationship between toeing out and age (lines 29-40) in order to

　　(A) illustrate a folly
　　(B) show how social attitudes toward posture change
　　(C) explain the effects of aging
　　(D) illustrate a medical problem
　　(E) offer a method to determine a woman's age from her footprints.

　　10. Given the author's statements in the passage, his advice for evaluating statistics that show a high positive correlation between two conditions could include all the following statements EXCEPT

　　(A) look for an explanation in the stream of events
　　(B) consider some trend of the times as the possible cause of both conditions
　　(C) account for the correlations in some way other than causality
　　(D) determine which of the two conditions is the cause and which is the effect
　　(E) decide whether the conclusions have been readched legitimately and the appropriate groupings have been made.

　　11. Assume that there is a high statistical correiation between college attendanceand individual earnings. Given this, the author would most probably agree with which one of the following statements about the cause-effect relationship between college attendance and income?

　　(A) Someone's potential earnings may be affected by other variables, like wealth or intelligence, that are also associated with college attendance.
　　(B) Someone who attends graduate school will be rich.
　　(C) Someone who attends graduate school will earn more money than someone who does not.
　　(D) Someone who attends college will earn more money than someone who does not attend college.
　　(E) Some who attends college will earn more money only because she does attend college.
　　
　　12. According to the author Professor Walker beheves that
　
　　(A) women who toe out age more rapidly than women who do not
　　(B) most woment toe out as they grow older because age increases the angle between the feet.
　　(C) Older women tend to walk with a greater angle between the feet
　　(D) Toeing out is the reason why women grow old
　　(E) A causal relationship must exist whenever two things vary together
　　
　　13. The author would reject all the following statements about cause-effect relationships as explanations for the statistics that show an increase in cancer rates EXCEPT that the
　
　　(A) Ceylongese drink more milk than the English
　　(B) Swiss produce and consume large quantities of dairy products
　　(C) Women of New England drink more milk than the women who live in some states of the southern United States
　　(D) People of Wisconsin have relatively high life expectancies
　　(E) People who live in some states of the southern United States have relatively high life expectancies
　
　　14. How would the author be most likely to explain the correlation between the " salaries of California school teachers [and the] profits of Nevada gambling halls" (Lines 63-64)?
　
　　(A) There is a positive correlation that is probably due to California teachers' working in Las Vegas on weekends to increase both their salaries and increase both their salaries and Nevada's gambling profits.
　　(B) There is a positive correlation that is probably linked to general economic trends, put no direct causal relationship exists.
　　(C) There is a negative correlation that is probably linked to general economic trends, but no direct causal relationship exists.
　　(D) There is a negative correlation because the element that controls Las Vegas gambling probably has agents in the Calitornia school system.
　　(E) The author would deny the existence of any correlation whatsoever.
　　　　
　　 In most developed countries, men have higher salaries, on average, than women. Much of the salary differential results from the tendency of women to be in lower-paying
　　
　　(5) occupations. The question of whether this occupational employment pattern can be attributed to sex discrimination is a complex one. In fact, wage differentials among occupations are the norm rather than the

　　(10)exception. Successful athletes commonly earn more than Nobel Prize-winning academics; gifted artists often cannot earn enough to survive, while mediocre investment bankers prosper. Given such differences ,the question

　　(15)naturally arises: talent and ability being equal why does anyone-man or woman-enter a low-paying occupation? One obvious answer is personal choice. An individual may prefer, for example, to teach math at a modest

　　(20)salary rather than to become a more highly paid electrical engineer.Some people argue that personal choice also explains sex-related wage differentials, According to this explanation, many women.

　　(25)because they place a high priority on parenting and performing household services, choose certain careers in which they are free to enter and leave the work force with minimum penalty. They may choose to

　　(30)acquire skills, such as typing and salesclerking, that do not depreciate rapidly with temporary absences from the work force. They may avoid occupational specialties that require extensive training periods, long and

　　(35)unpredictable hours, and willingness to relocate, all of which make speclalzation in domestic activities problematic. By choosing to in vest less in developong their career potential and to expend less effort outside

　　(40)the home, women must, according to this explanation, pay a price in the from of lower salaries. But women cannot be considered the victims of discrimination because they prefer the lower-paving occupartions to
　
　　(45)hugher-paying ones.

　　An alternative explanation for sex-related wage differentials is that women do not voluntarlly choose lower-paying occupations but are forced into them by employers and

　　(50)social prejudices. According to proponents of this view, employers who discriminate may refuse to hire qualified women for relatively high-paying occupations. More generally, subtle society-wide prejudices may induce
　
　　(55)women to avoid certain occupations in favor of others that are considered more suitable. Indeed, the "choice" of women to specialize in parenting and performing household services may itself result from these subtle

　　(60)prejudices. Whether the discrimination is by employers in a particular occupation or by society as a whole is irrelevant; the effect will be the same. Further, if such discrimination does occur, women exchuded from certain

　　(65)occupations will flood others, and this increase in supply will have a depressing effect on wages in occupations dominated by women
　
　　15. Which one of the following is the best little for the passage?

　　(A) Wage Differentials Between Men and Women
　　(B) Women in Low-Paying Occupations: Do They Have a Choice?
　　(C) Sex Discrimination in the Workplace
　　(D) The Role of Social Prejudice in Women's Careers.
　　(E) Home vs. Office: how Does the Modern Woman Choose?

　　16. In stating that "Successful athletes commonly earn more than Nobel Prize-winning academics" (lines 10-11), the author's primary purpose is to

　　(A) demonstrate that education has little to do with making money
　　(B) suggest that people with talent and ability should not enter low-paying occupations
　　(C) show that highly paid occupations generally require long hours and extensive training
　　(D) imply that a person can be successful and still not make much money
　　(E) give an example of how certain occupations are better paid than others. Tegardiess of inherent: worth or talent required

　　17. Which one of the following cases is least likely to involve sex descrimination, as it is described in the passage?

　　(A) An employer hires a man rather than an equally qualified woman.
　　(B) A woman chooses to enter a high-paying occupation that uses her talent and ability.
　　(C) A woman chooses an occupation that is already dominated by women.
　　(D) A woman chooses a low-paying job that allows her to devote more time to her family.
　　(E) A woman chooses to avoid the pressure of being in an occupation not considered "suitable" for women
　　
　　18. Proponents of the "alternative explanation" (line 46) argue that

　　(A) Employers have difficulty persuading quallried women to enter relatively high-paying occupations
　　(B) Women choose undemanding jobs because they wish to keep their career options open
　　(C) Women will flood domestic occupations
　　(D) Salanes in female-dominated occupations will decrease as more women are forced into those occupations by their exclusion from others
　　(E) Women's choice of occupation is irrelevant since they have always made less money than men and are likely to continue to do so
　　
　　19. Which one of the following statements is the best completion of the last paragraph of the passage?

　　(A) Wage differentials will become more exaggerated and economic parity between men and women less and less possible.
　　(B) Finally, women will be automatically placed in the same salary range as unskilled laborers.
　　(C) The question is, how long will women allow themselves to be excluded from male-dominated occupations?
　　(D) In the last analysis, women may need to ask themselves if they can really afford to allow sex discrimination to continue.
　　(E) Unless society changes its views, women may never escape the confines of the few occupations designated "For Women Only"
　　
　　20. The author's attitude toward sex discrmination as an explanation for wage differentials can best be characterized as an explanation for wage differentials can best be characterized as differentials can best be characterized as

　　(A) critical of society's acceptance of discrimination
　　(B) skeptical that discrimination is a factor
　　(C) convinced that the problem will get worse
　　(D) neutral with respect to its validity
　　(E) frustrated by the intractability of the problem
　
　　The starting point for any analysis of insurance classification is an obvious but fundamental fact insurance is only one of a number of ways of satisfying the demand for
　
　　(5) protection against risk With few exceptions, insurance need not be purchased; people can forgo it if insurance is too expensive Indeed, as the price of coverage rises, the amount purchased and the number of people.

　　(10)purchasing will decline. Instead of buying insurance, people will self-insure by accumulating saving to serve as a cushion in the event of loss, self-protect by spending more on loss protection, or simply use the
　
　　(15)money not spent on insurance to purchase other goods and services An insurer must compete against these alternatives., even in the absence of competition from other insurers.One method of competing for protection
　　
　　(20)dollars is to classify potential purchasers into groups according to their probability of loss and the potential magnitude of losses if they occur. Different risk classes may then be charged different premiums, depending on
　　
　　(25)this expected loss. Were it not for the need to compete for protection dollars, an insurer could simply charge each individual an insurer could simply charge each individual a premium based on the average expected loss of all its insureds (plus a margin for profit and
　
　　(30)expenses), without incurring classification costs. In constructing risk classes, the insurer's goal is to calculate the expected loss of each insured, and to place insureds, with similar expected losses into the same.
　
　　(35)class, in order to charge each the same rate. An insurer can capture protection dollars by classifying because, through classification, it can offer low-risk individuals lower prices. Classification, however, involves two costs.
　
　　(40)First, the process of classification is costly. Insurers must gather data and perform statistical operations on it; marketing may also be more costly when prices are not uniform. Second, classification necessarily

　　(45)rauses premiums for poor risks, who purchase less coverage as a result. In the aggregate, classification is thus worthwhile to an insurer only when the gains produced from extra sales and fewer pry-outs outweigh
　
　　(50)classificaton costs plus the costs of lost sales. Even in the absence of competition from other insurers, an insurer who engages in at least some classification is likely to capture more protection dollars than it loses.

　　(55) When there is not only competition for available protection dollars, but competition among insurers for premium dollars, the value of risk classification to insurers becomes even clearer. The more refined (and accurate) an

　　(60)insurer's risk classifications, the more capable it is of "skimming" good risks away from insurers whose classifications are less refined. If other insurers do not respond, either by refining their own classifications or

　　(65)by raising prices and catering mainly to high risks, their "book" of risks will contain a higher mixture of poor risks who are still being charged premiums calculated for average risks These insurers will attract
　
　　(70)additional poor risks, and this resulting adverse selection will further disadvantage their competitive positions.

　　21. Which one of the following best identifies the main topic of the passage?

　　(A) reduction of competition in the insurance business
　　(B) classification of potential insurance purchasers
　　(C) risk avoidance in insurance sales
　　(D) insurance protection and premiums
　　(E) methods of insurance classifying

　　22. The passage mentions all of the following as possible or certain costs of classifying EXCEPT the cost of

　　(A) collecting facts
　　(B) conducting statistical analyses
　　(C) selling insurance at different prices
　　(D) a decrease in purchases by poor risks
　　(E) larger, albeit fewer, claims

　　23. Which one of the following is closest to the author's expressed position on competition in the insurance business?

　　(A) It has a significant influence on most aspects of the insurance industry.
　　(B) It is a relevant factor, but it has little practical consequence.
　　(C) It is a basic but not very apparent element of the insurance business.
　　(D) It provides a strong incentive for insurers to classify potential customers.
　　(E) It is influential in insurance marketing practices.
　　
　　24. The passage suggests that if all insurers classified risk, who among the following would be adversely affected?

　　(A) All insurance purchasers
　　(B) Insurance purchasers who would be classified as poor risks
　　(C) Individuals who self-insured or self protected
　　(D) Insurers who had a high proportion of good risks in their "book" of risks
　　(E) Insurers with the most refined risk classifications
　　
　　25. Given the discussion in the first paragraph, what is the distinction, if any, between "insurance" and "self-protection"?
　　
　　(A) There is very little or no distinction between the two terms.
　　(B) Insurance is a kind of self-protection.
　　(C) Self-protection is a kind of insurance.
　　(D) Insurance and self-protection are two of several alternative means to a specific end
　　(E) Insurance and self-protection are the only two alternative means to a specific end.
　
　　26. Which one of the following is most closely analogous to the process of classification in insurance, as it is described in the passage?
　
　　(A) devising a profile of successful employees and hiring on the basis of the profile
　　(B) investigating the fuel efficiency of a make of automobile and deciding whether or not to buy on that basis
　　(C) assessing an investor's willingness to take risks before suggesting a specific investment
　　(D) making price comparisons on potential major purchases and then seeking discounts from competing dealers
　　(E) comparing prices for numerous minor nims and the selecting one store for future purchases.


SECTION 2
Directions: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implies in the passage for some of the questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet

　Three kinds of study have been performed on Byron. There is the biographical study-the very valuable examination of Byron's psychology and the events in his life. Escarpit's 1958 work is an example

(5) of this kind of study and biographers to this day continue to speculate about Byron's life. Equally valuable is the study of Byron as a figure important in the history of ideas; Russell and Prza have written studies of this kind. Finally, there are

(10)studies that primarily consider Byron's poetry. Such inerary studies are valuable however only when they avoid concentrating solely on analyzing the verbal shadings of Byron's poetry to the exclusion of any discussion of biographical considerations. A

(15)study with such a concentration would be of questionable value because Byron's poetry, for the most part, is simply not a poetry of subtle verbal most part, is simply not a poetry of subtle verbal meanings. Rather, on the whole, Byron's poerns record the emotional pressure of certain moments

(20)in his life. I believe we cannot often read a poem of Bvron's we often can one of Shakespeare's without wondering what events or circumstances in his life prompted him to write it.
　　
　No doubt the fact that most of Byron's poems

(25)cannot be convincingly read as subtle verbal creations indicates that Byron is not a "great" poet. It must be admitted too that Byron's literary craftsmanship is irregular and often his temperament disrupts even his lax literrary method

(30)(although the result an absence of method has a significant purpose: it functions as a rebuke to a cosmos that Byron feels he cannot understand). If Byron is not a "great" poet his poetry is nonetheless of extrtaordinary interest to us because

(35)of the pleasure it gives us: Our main pleasure in reading Byron's poetry is the contact with a singular personality. Reading his work gives us illumination-self-understanding-after we have seen our weaknesses and aspirations mirrored in

(40)the personality we usually find in the poems. Anyone who thinks that this kind of illumination is not a genuine reason for reading a poet should think carefully about why we read Donne's sonnets.

　It is Byron and Byron's idea of himself that hold

(45)his work together (and that enthralled early nineteenth-century Europe Different characters speak in his poems, but finally it is usually he himself who is speaking a far cry from the impersonal poet Keats. Byron's poetry alludes to)

(50)Greek and Roman myth in the context of contemporary affairs, but his work remains generally of a piece because of his close presence in the poetry. In sum, the poetry is a shrewd personal performance, and to shut out Byron the man is to

(55)fabricate a work of pseudocriticism.
　　
1.Which one of the following titles best expresses the main idea of the passage?

　(A) An Absence of Method. Why Byron is Not a "Great" Poet　
　(B) Byron: The Recurring Presence in Byron's Poetry
　(C) Personality and Poetry. The Biographical Dimension of Nineteenth-Century Poetty
　(D) Byron's Poetry: Its Influence on the imagination of Early-Nineteenth-Century Europe
　(E) Verbal Shadings: The Fatal Flaw of Twentieth-Century Literary Criticism

2. The author's mention of Russell and Praz serves primarily to
　
　(A) differentiate them from one another
　(B) contrast their conclusions about Byron with those of Escarptt
　(C) point out the writers whose studies suggest a new direction for Byron scholarship
　(D) provide examples of writers who have written one kind of study of Byron
　(E) give credit to the writers who have composed the best studies of Byrson
　
3.Which one of the following would the author most likely consider to be a valuable study of Byron?

　(A) a study that compared Byron's poetic style with Keats' poetic style
　(B) a study that argued that Byron's thought ought not to be analyzed in terms of its importance in the history of ideas
　(C) a study that sought to identify the emotions felt by Byron at a particular time in his life
　(D) a study in which a literary critic argues that the language of Byron's poetry was more subtle than that of Keat's poetry
　(E) a study in which a literary critic drew on experiences from his or her own life
　
4.Which one of the following statements best describes the organization of first paragraph of the passage?

　(A) A generalization is made and then gradually refuted
　(B) A number of theories are discussed and then the author chooses the most convincing one
　(C) Several categories are mentioned and then one category is discussed in some detail
　(D) A historical trend is delineated and then a prediction about the future of the trend is offered
　(E) A classification is made and then a rival classification is substituted in its place
　
5.The author mentions that "Byron's literary craftsmanship is irregular" (lines 27-28) most probably in order to
　
　(A) contrast Byron's poetic skill with that of Shakespeare
　(B) dismiss craftsmanship as a standard by which to judge poets
　(C) offer another reason why Byron is not a "great" poet
　(D) pornt out a negative consequence of Byron's belief that the cosmos is mcomprehensible
　(E) mdicate the most-often-cited explanation of why Byron's poetry lacks subtle verbal nuances
　
6.According to the autohor Shakespeare's poems differ from Byron's in that Shakespeare's poems

　(A) have elicited a wider variety of responses from both literary critics and biographers
　(B) are on the whole less susceptible to being read as subtle verbal creations
　(C) do not grow out of or are not motivated by actual events or circumstances in the poet's life
　(D) provide the attentive reader with a greater degree of illumination concerning his or her own weaknesses and aspirations
　(E) can often be read without the reader's being curious about what biographical factors motivated the poet to write them
　
7.The author indicates which one of the following about biographers speculation concerning Byron's life?

　(A) Such speculation began in earnest with Escarpit's study
　(B) Such speculation continues today
　(C) Such speculation is less important than consideration of Byron's poetry
　(D) Such speculation has not given us a satisfactory sense of Byron's life
　(E) Such speculation has been carried out despite the objections of literary critics
　
8.The passage supplies specific information that provides a definitive answer to which one of the following questions?

　(A) What does the author consider to be the primary enjoyment derived from reading Byron?
　(B) Who among literary critics has primarily studied Byron's poems?
　(C) Which moments in Byron's life exerted the greatest pressure on his poetry?
　(D) Has Byron ever been considered to be a "great" poet?
　(E) Did Byron exert an influence on Europeans in the latter part of the nineteenth century?
　
　The United States Supreme Court has not always resolved legal issues of concern to Native Americans in a manner that has pleased the Indian nations. Many of the Court's decisions have been

(5) products of political compromise that looked more to the temper of the times than to enduring principles of law. But accommodation is part of the judicial system in the United States, and judicial decisions must be assessed with this fact in mind.

(10)Despite the "accommodating" nature of the judicial system, it is worth noting that the power of the Supreme Court has been exercised in a manner that has usually been beneficial to Native Americans, at least on minor issues and has not

(15)been wholly detrimental on the larger, more important issues. Certainly there have been decisions that cast doubt on the validity of this assertion. Some critics point to the patronizing tone of many Court opinions and the apparent rejection

(20)of Native American values as important points to consider when reviewing a case. However the validity of the assertion can be illustrated by reference to two important contributions that have resulted from the exercise of judicial power.

(25)　First the Court has created rules of judicial construction that in general favor the rights of Native American litigants. The Court's attitude has been conditioned by recognition of the distinct disadvantages Native Americans faced when

(30)dealing with settlers in the past. Treaties were inevitably written in English for the benefit of their authors, whereas tribal leaders were accustomed to making treaties without any written account, on the strength of mutual promises sealed by religious

(35)commitment and individual integrity. The written treaties were often broken and Native Americans were confronted with fraud and Native Americans were confronted with fraud and political and military aggression. The Court recognizes that past unfairness to Native Americans cannot be

(40)sanctioned by the force of law. Therefore, ambiguities in treaties are to be interpreted in favor of the Native American claimants treaties are to be interpreted as the Native Americans would have understood them and under the reserved rights

(45)doctrine treaties reserve to Native Americans all rights that have not been specifically granted away in other treaties.
　
　A second achievement of the judicial system is the protection that has been provided against

(50)encroachment by the states into tribal affairs. Federal judges are not inclined to view favorably efforts to extend states powers and jurisdictions because of the direct threat that such expansion poses to the exercise of federal powers. In the

(55)absence of a federal statute directly and clearly allocating a function to the states federal judges are inclined to reserve to reserve for the federal government-and powers and rights they can be said to have
　
(60)possessed historically

9.According to the passage, one reason why the United States Supreme Court "has not always resolved legal issues of concern to Native Americans in a manner that has pleased the Indian nations" (lines 1-4) is that

　(A) Native Americans have been prevented from presenting their concerns persuasively
　(B) The Court has failed to recognize that the Indian nations' concerns are different from those of other groups or from those of the federal government
　(C) The Court has been reluctant to curtail the powers of the federal government
　(D) Native Americans faced distinct disadvantages in dealing with settlers in the past
　(E) The Court has made political compromises in deciding some cases
　　
10. It can be inferred that the objections raised by the critics mentioned in line 18 would be most clearly answered by a United States Supreme Court decision that

　(A) demonstrated respect for Native Americans and the principles and qualities they consider important
　(B) protected the rights of the states in conflicts with the federal government
　(C) demonstrated recognition of the unfair treatment Native Americans received in the past
　(D) reflected consideration of the hardships suffered by Native Americans because of unfair treaties
　(E) prevented repetition of inequities experienced by Native Americans in the past

11. It can be inferred that the author calls the judicial system of the United States "accommodating" (line 10) primarily in order to
　　
　(A) suggest that the decisions of the United States Supreme Court have been less favorable to Native Americans than most people believe
　(B) suggest that the United States Supreme Court should be more supportive of the goals of Native Americans
　(C) suggest a reason why the decisions of the United States Supreme Court have not always favored Native Americans
　(D) indicate that the United States Supreme Court has made creditable efforts to recognize the values of Native Americans
　(E) indicate that the United States Supreme Court attempts to be fair to all parties to a case
　　
12. The author's attitude toward the United States Supreme Court's resolution of legal issues of concern to Native Americans can best be described as one of

　(A) wholehearted endorsement
　(B) restrained appreciation
　(C) detached objectivity
　(D) cautious opposition
　(E) suppressed exasperation

13. It can be inferred that the author believes that the extension of the states' powers and jurisdictions with respect to Native American affairs would be

　(A) possible only with the consent of the Indian nations
　(B) favorably viewed by the United States Supreme Court
　(C) in the best interests of both state and federal governments
　(D) detrimental to the interests of Native Americans
　(E) discouraged by most federal judges in spite of legal precedents supporting the extension

14. The author's primary purpose is to
　　
　(A) contrast opposing views
　(B) reevaluate traditional beliefs
　(C) reconcile divergent opinions
　(D) assess the claims made by disputants
　(E) provide evidence to support a contention

15. It can be inferred that the author believes the United States Supreme Court's treatment of Native Americans to have been

　(A) irremproachable on legal grounds
　(B) reasonably supportive in most situations
　(C) guided by enduring principles of law
　(D) misguided but generally harmless
　(E) harmful only in a few minor cases

　When catastrophe strikes, analysts typically blame some combination of powerful mechanisms. An earthquake is traced to an immense instability along a fault line; a stock market crash is blamed on
　
(5) the destabilizing effect of computer trading. These explanations may well be correct. But systems as large and complicated as the Earth's crust or the stock market can break down not only under the force of a mighty blow but also at the drop of a pin.

(10)In a large interactive system, a minor event can start a chain reaction that leads to a catastrophe.
　Traditionally, investigators have analyzed large interactive systems in the same way they analyze small orderly systems, mainly because the methods

(15)developed for small systems have proved so successful. They believed they could predict the behavior of a large interactive system by studying its elements separately and by analyzing its component mechanisms individually. For lack of a better

(20)theory, they assumed that in large interactive systems the response to a disturbance is proportional to that disturbance.

　During the past few decades, however, it has become increasingly apparent that many large

(25)complicated systems do not yield to traditional analysis. Consequently, heorists have proposed a "theory of self-organized criticality" many large interactive systems evolve naturally to a critical state in which a minor event starts a chain reaction

(30)that can affect any number of elements in the system. Although such systems produce more minor events than catastrophes, the mechanism that leads to minor events is the same one that leads to major events.
　
(35)A deceptively simple system serves as a paradigm for self-organized criticality: a pile of sand. As sand is poured one grain at a time onto a fiat disk the grains at first stay close to the position where they land. Soon they rest on top of one

(40)another creating a pile that has a gentle slope. Now and then, when the lope becomes too steep the grains slide down causing a small avalanche. The system reaches its critical state when the amount of sand added is balanced; on average, by the amount

(45)falling off the edge of the disk.

　Now when a grain of sand is added, it can start an avalanche of any size, including a "catastrophic" event. Most of the time the grain will fall so that no avalanche occurs. By studying a specific area of the
　
(50)pile, one can even predict whether avalanches will occur there in the near future. To such a local observer, however, large avalanches would remain unpredictable because they are a consequence of the total history of the entire pile. No matter what

(55)the local dynamics are catastrophic avalanches would persist at a relative frequency that cannot be altered: Criticality is a global property of the sandpile.

16.The passage provides support for all of the following generalizations about large interactive systems EXCEPT:

　(A) They can evolve to a critical state.
　(B) They do not always yield to traditional analysis
　(C) They make it impossible for observers to make any predictions about them
　(D) They are subject to the effects of chain reactions
　(E) They are subject to more minor events than major events.
　
17. According to the passage, the criticality of a sandpile is determined by the

　(A) size of the grains of sand added to the sandpile
　(B) number of grains of sand the sandpile contains
　(C) rate at which sand is added to the sandpile
　(D) shape of the surface on which the sandpile rests
　(E) balance between the amount of sand added to and the amount lost from the sandplie

18. It can be inferred from the passage that the theory employed by the investigators mentioned in the second paragraph would lead one to predict that which one of the following would result from the addition of a grain of sand to a sandpile?
　
　(A) The grain of sand would never cause anything more than a minor disturbance
　(B) The grain of sand would usually cause a minor disturbance, but would occasionally cause a small avalanche
　(C) The grain of sand would usually cause either minor disturbance or a small avalanche, but would occasionally cause a catastrophic event
　(D) The grain of sand would usually cause a catastrophic event, but would occasionally cause only a small avalanche or an event more minor disturbance
　(E) The grain of sand would invariably cause a catastrophic event
　　　
19. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

　(A) A traditional procedure is described and its application to common situations is endorsed: its shortcomings in certain rare but critical circumstances are then revealed
　(B) A common misconception is elaborated and its consequences are described a detailed example of one of these consequences is then given.
　(C) A general principle is stated and supported by several examples; an exception to the rule is then considered and its importance evaluated
　(D) A number of seemingly unrelated events are categorized: the underlying processes that connect them are then detailed
　(E) A traditional method of analysis is discussed and the reasons for its adoption are explained: an alternative is then described and clarified by means of an example.

20. Which one of the following is most analogous to the method of analysis employed by the investigators mentioned in the second paragraph?

　(A) A pollster gathers a sample of voter preferences and on the basis of this information makes a prediction about the outcome of an election
　(B) A historian examines the surviving documents detailing the history of a movement and from these documents reconstructs a chronology of the events that initiated the movement
　(C) A meteorologist measures the rainfall over a certain period of the year and from this data calculates the total annual rainfall for the region.
　(D) A biologist observes the behavior of one species of insect and from these observations generalizes about the behavior of insects as a class.
　(E) An engineer analyzes the stability of each structural element of a bridge and from these analyses draws a conclusion about the structural soundness of the bridge.

21. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
　　
　(A) arguing against the abandonment of a traditional approach
　(B) describing the evolution of a radical theory
　(C) reconciling conflicting points of view
　(D) illustrating the superiority of a new theoretical approach
　(E) advocating the reconsideration of an unfashionable explanation

　Historians have long accepted the notion that women of English descent who lived in the English colonies of North America during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries were better off than either
　
(5) the contemporary women in England or the colonists' own nineteenth-century daughters and granddaughters. The "golden age" theory originated in the 1920 with the work of Elizabeth Dexter who argued that there were relatively few

(10)women among the colonists, and that all hands-male and female-were needed to sustain the growing settlements. Rigid sex-role distionctions could no exist under such circumstances; female colonists could accordingly engage in whatever

(15)occupations they wished encountering few legal or social constraints if they sought employment outside the home. The surplus of mate colonists also gave women crucial bargaining power in the marriage marke since women's contributions were vital to

(20)the survival of colonial households.

　Dexter's portrait of female colonists living under conditions of rough equality with their male counterparts was eventualiy incorporated into studies of nineteenth-century middle-class women
　
(25)The contrast between the self-sufficient colonial woman and the oppressed nineteenth--century woman confined to her home by stultifying ideologies of domesticity and by the fact that industrialization eliminated employment

(30)opportunities for middle -class women gained an extraordinarily tenacious hold on historians. Even scholars who have questioned the "golden age" view of colonial women's status have continued to accept the paradigm of a nineteenth-century

(35)decline from a more desirable past. For example. Joan Hofi-Wilson asserted that there was no "golden age" and yet emphasized that the nineteenth century brought "increased loss of function and authentic status for" middle-class

(40) women

　recent publications about colonial women have exposed the concept of a decline in status as simplistic and unsophisticated, a theory that based its assessment of colonial women's status solely on
　
(45)one factor (their economic function in society) and assumed all too readily that a relatively simple social system automatically brought higher standing to colonial women. The new scholarship presents a far more complicated picture, one in which

(50)definitions of gender roles, the colonial economy, demographic patterns, religion, the law, and household organization all contributed to defining the circumstances of colonial women's lives. Indeed, the primary concern of modern scholarship is not to

(55)generalize about women's status but to identify the specific changes and continuities in women's lives during the colonial period. For example, whereas change for colonial women before 1800 the new
　
(60)scholarship suggests that a three-part chronological division more accurately reflects colonial women's experiences. First was the initial period of English colonization (from the 1620s to about 1660); then a period during which patterns of family and

(65)community were challenged and reshaped (roughly from 1660 to 1750); and finally the era of revolution (approximately 1750 to 1815), which brought other changes to women's lives
　
22. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

　(A) An earlier theory about the status of middle-class women in the nineteenth century has been supported by recent scholarship
　(B) Recent studies of middle-class nineteenth-century women have altered an earlier theory about the status of colonial women
　(C) Recent scholarship has exposed an earlier theory about the status of colonial women as too narrowly based and oversimplified
　(D) An earlier theory about colonial women has greatly influenced recent studies on middle-class women in the nineteenth century
　(E) An earlier study of middle-class women was based on insufficient research on the status of women in the nineteenth century
　　
23. The author discusses Hoff-Wilson primarily in order to
　
　(A) describe how Dexter's theory was refuted by historians of nineteenth-century North America
　(B) describe how the theory of middle-class women's nineteenth-century decline in siatus was developed
　(C) describe an important influence on recent scholarship about the colonial period
　(D) demonstrate the persistent influence of the "golden age" theory
　(E) provide an example of current research one the colonial period
　　
24. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to describe the views of the scholars mentioned in line 32 as
　
　(A) unassailable
　(B) innovative
　(C) paradoxical
　(D) overly sophisticated
　(E) without merit

25. It can be inferred from the passage that in proposing the "three-part chronological division" (lines 60-61), scholars recognized which one of the following?

　(A) The circumstances of colonial women's lives were defined by a broad variety of social and economic factors
　(B) Women's lives in the English colonies of North America were similar to women's lives in seventeenth-and eighteenth-century England
　(C) Colonial women's status was adversely affected when patterns of family and community were established in the late seventeenth century
　(D) Colonial women's status should be assessed primarily on the basis of their economic function in society
　(E) Colonial women's status was low when the colonies were settled but changed significantly during the era of revolution
　
26. According to the author the publications about colonial women mentioned in the third paragraph had which one of the following effects?

　(A) They undermined Dexter's argument on the status of women colonists during the colonial period.
　(B) They revealed the tenacity of the "golden age" theory in American history
　(C) They provided support for historians, such as Hoff-Wilson. Who study the nineteenth century
　(D) They established that women's status did not change significantly from the colonial period to the nineteenth century
　(E) They provided support for earlier theories about women colonists in the English colonies of North America
　
27. Practitioners of the new scholarship discussed in the last paragraph would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about Dexter's argument?

　(A) It makes the assumption that women's status is determined primarily by their political power in society
　(B) It makes the assumption that a less complex social system necessarily confers higher status on women
　(C) It is based on inadequate research on women's economic role in the colonies
　(D) It places too much emphasis on the way definitions of gender roles affected women colonists in the colonial period
　(E) It accurately describes the way women's status declined in the nineteenth century.

silentwingsUID: 150781

SECTION 3
Directions: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corn conding space on your answer sheet.
　　　Musicoiogists concerned with the "London Pianoforte school," the group 　of composers, pedagogues, pianists, publishers, and builders who 　contributed to the development of the piano in London
(5) at the turn of the nineteenth century have long encountered a formidable 　obstacle in the general unavailability of music of this "school" in modern 　scholarly editions, Indeed, much of this repertory has more or less vanished 　from our historical
(10) consciousness. Granted, the sonatas and Gradus ad Parnassum of Muzio 　Clementi and the nocturnes of john Field have remained farniliar enough 　(though more often than not in editions lacking scholarly rigor), but the work 　of other leading representatives, like
(15) Johann Baptist Cramer and Jan Ladislav Dussek, has eluded serious 　attempts at revival.
　　　Nicholas Temperley's ambitious new anthology decisively overcomes this 　deficiency. What underscores the intrinsic value of Temperley's editions
(20) is that the anthology reproduces nearly all of the original music in 　facsimile. Making available this cross section of English musical life—some 　800 works by 49 composers—should encourage new critical perspectives 　about how piano music evolved in
(25) England, an issue of considerable relevance to our understanding of how 　piano music developed on the European continent, and of how, finally, the 　instrument was transformed from the fortepiano to what we know today as the 　piano.
(30) To be sure, the London Pianoforte school itself calls for review. "School" 　may well be too strong a word for what was arguably a group unified not so 　much by stylistic principles or aesthetic creed as by the geographical 　circumstance that they worked at
(35) various times in London and produced pianos and piano music for English 　pianos and English markets. Indeed, Temperley concedes that their "variety 　may be so great as to cast doubt on the notion of a 'school.'"
　　　The notion of a school was first propounded by
(40) Alexander Ringer, who argued that laws of artistic survival forced the 　young, progressive Beethoven to turn outside Austria for creative models, and 　that he found inspiration in a group of pianists connected with Clementi in 　London. Ringer's proposed London
(45) Pianoforte school did suggest a circumscribed and fairly unified group—for 　want of a better term, a school—of musicians whose influence was felt 　primarily in the decades just before and after 1800. After all, Beethoven did 　respond to the advances of the
(50) Broadwood piano—its reinforced frame, extended compass, triple strining, 　and pedsals, for example—and it is reasonable to suppose that London 　pianists who composed music for such an instrument during the critical 　phase of its development exercised no small
(55) degree of influence on Continental musicians. Nevertheless, perhaps the 　most sensible approach to this issue is to define the school by the period (c, 　1766-1873) during which it flourished, as Temperley has done in the 　anthology.
1. Which one of the following most accurately states the author's main point?
(A) Temperley has recently called into question the designation of a group of 　　composers. pedagogues, pianists, publishers, and builders as the London 　　Pianoforte school
(B) Temperley's anthology of the music of the London Pianoforte school 　　contributes significantly to an understanding of an influential period in the 　　history of music.
(C) The music of the London Pianoforte school has been revived by the 　　publication of Temperley's new anthology.
(D) Primary sources for musical manuserrpts provide the most reliable basis for 　　musicological research.
(E) The development of the modern piano in England influenced composers and 　　other musicians throughout Europe.
2. It can be inferred that which one of the following is true of the piano music of the London Pianoforte school?
(A) The nocturnes of John Field typify the London Pianoforte school style.
(B) The Gradus ad Parnassum of Muzio Clementi is the best-known work of 　　these composers.
(C) No original scores for this music are exant
(D) Prior to Temperley's edition, no attempts to issue new editions of this music 　　had been made.
(E) In modern times much of the music of this school has been little known 　　even to musicians.
3. The author mentions the sonatas of Muzio Clementi and the nocturnes of John Field as examples of which one of the following?
(A) works by composers of the London Pianoforte school that have been 　　preserved in rigorous scholarly editions
(B) works that are no longer remembered by most people
(C) works acclaimed by the leaders of the London Pianoforte school
(D) works by composers of the London Pianoforte school that are relatively 　　wellknown
(E) works by composers of the London Pianoforte school that have been revived 　　by Temperley in his anthology
4. Which one of the following, if true, would most clearly undermine a portion of Ringer's argument as the argument is described in the passage?
(A) Musicians in Austria composed innovative music for the Broadwood piano 　　as soon as the instrument became available.
(B) Clementi and his followers produced most of their compositions between 　　1790 and 1810.
(C) The influence of Continental musicians is apparent in some of the works of 　　Beethoven.
(D) The pianist-composers of the London Pianoforte school shared many of the 　　same stylistic principles.
(E) Most composers of the London Pianoforte school were born on the 　　Continent and were drawn to London by the work of Clementi and his 　　followers.
5. It can be inferred that the author uses the word "advances" (line 49) to refer to
(A) enticements offered musicians by instrument manufacturers
(B) improvements in the structure of a particular instrument
(C) innovations in the forms of music produced for a particular instrument
(D) stylistic elaborations made possible by changes in a particular instrument
(E) changes in musicians' opinions about a particular instrument
6. It can be inferred from the passage as a whole that the author's purpose in the third paragraph is primarily to
(A) cast doubt on the usefulness of Temperley's study of the London Pianoforte 　　school
(B) introduce a discussion of the coherency of the London Pianoforte school
(C) summarize Ringer's argument about the London Pianoforte school
(D) emphasize the complex nature of the musicological elements shared by 　　members of the London Pianoforte school.
(E) identify the unique contributions made to music by the London Pianoforte 　　school
7. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) explaining the influence of the development of the pianoforte on the music of 　　Beethoven
(B) describing Tempetley's view of the contrast between the development of 　　piano music in England and the development of plano music elsewhere in 　　Europe
(C) presenting Temperley's evaluation of the impact of changes in piano 　　construction on styles and forms of music composed in the era of the 　　London Pianoforte school
(D) considering an altermnative theory to that proposed by Ringer concerning 　　the London Pianoforte school
(E) discussing the contribution of Temperley's anthology to what is known of the 　　history of the London Pianoforte school
8. It can be inferred that Temperley's anthology treats the London Pianoforte school as
(A) a group of pianist-composers who shared certain stylistic principles and 　　arustic creeds
(B) a group of people who contributed to the development of piano music 　　between 1766 and 1873
(C) a group of composers who influenced the music of Beethoven in the 　　decades just before and just after 1800
(D) a series of compositions for the pianoforte published in the decades just 　　before and just after 1800
(E) a series of compositions that had a significant influence on the music of the 　　Continent in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries
　　　What is "law"? By what processes do judges arrive at opinions. those 　documents that justify their belief that the "law" dictates a conclusion one 　way or the other? These are among the oldest questions in
(5) jurisprudence, debate about which has traditionally been dominated by 　representatives of two schools of thought: proponents of natural law, who see 　law as intertwined with a moral order independent of society's rules and 　mores, and legal positivists, who see law
(10) solely as embodying the commands of a society's ruling authority
　　　Since the early 1970s, these familiar questions have received some new 　and surprising answers in the legal academy. This novelty is in part a 　consequence of the
(15) increasing influence there of academic disciplines and intellectual traditions 　previously unconnected with the study of law. Perhaps the most influential 　have been the answers given by the Law and Economics school. According 　to these legal economists, law consists and
(20) ought to consist of those rules that maximize a society's material wealth 　and that abet the efficient operation of markets designed to generate wealth. 　More controversial have been the various answers provided by members of 　the Critical Legal Studies movement
(25) according to whom law is one among several cultural mechanisms by 　which holders of power seek to legitimate their domination. Drawing on 　related arguments developed in anthropology, sociology, and history, the 　critical legal scholars contend that law is an
(30) expression of power, but not, as held by the positivists, the power of the 　legitimate sovereign government. Rather, it is an expression of the power of 　elites who may have no legitimate authority, but who are intent on preserving 　the privileges of their race, class, or gender.
(35) In the mid-1970s, James Boyd White began to articulate yet another 　interdiseiplinary response to the traditional questions, and in so doing 　spawned what is now known as the Law and Literature movement White has 　insisted that law, particularly as it is
(40) interpreted in judicial opinions, should be understood as an essentially 　literary activity. Judicial opinions should be read and evaluated not primarily 　as political acts or as atte mpts to maximize society's wealth through 　efficient rules, but rather as artistic
(45) performances. And like all such performances, White argues, each judicial 　opinion attempts in its own way to promote a particular political or ethical 　value.
　　　In the recent Justice as Translation, White argues that opinion-writing 　should be regarded as an act of
(50) "translation," and judges as "translators." As such, judges find themselves 　mediating between the authoritative legal text and the pressing legal problem 　that demands resolution. A judge must essentially "re-constitute" that text by 　fashioning a new one, which
(55) is faithful to the old text but also responsive to and informed by the 　conditions, constraints, and aspirations of the world in which the new legal 　problem has arisen.
9. Which one of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Within the last few decades, a number of novel approaches to jurisprudence 　have defined the nature of the law in diverse ways.
(B) Within the last few decades, changes in society and in the number and type 　of cases brought to court have necessitated new methods of interpreting the 　law.
(C) Of the many interdisciplinary approaches to jurisprudence that have 　surfaced in the last tow decades, the Law and Literature movement is the 　most intellectually coherent.
(D) The Law and Literature movement, first articulated by James Boyd White in 　the mid-1970s, represents a synthesis of the many theories of jurisprudence 　inspired by the social sciences
(E) Such traditional legal scholars as legal positivists and natural lawyers are 　increasingly on the defensive against attacks from younger, more progressive 　theorists.
10. According to the passage, judicial opinions have been described as each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) political statements
(B) arcane statements
(C) economic statements
(D) artistic performances
(E) acts of translation
11. Which one of the following statements is most compatible with the principles of the Critical Legal Studies movement as that movement is described in the passage?
(A) Laws governing the succession of power at the death of a head of state 　　represent a synthesis of legal precedents, specific situations, and the 　　values of lawmakers
(B) Laws allowing income tax deductions for charitable contributions, though 　　ostensibly passed by lawmakers, were devised by and are perpetuated by 　　the rich
(C) Laws governing the tariffs placed on imported goods must favor the 　　continuation of mutually beneficial trade arrangements, even at the 　　expense of long-standing legal precedent.
(D) Laws governing the treatment of the disadvantaged and powerless members 　　of a given society are an accurate indication of that society's moral state.
(E) Laws controlling the electoral processes of a representative democracy have 　　been devised by lawmakers to ensure the continuation of that governmental 　　system.
12. Which one of the following does the passage mention as a similarity between the Critical Legal Studies movement and the Law and Literature movement?
(A) Both offer explanations of how elites maintain their hold on power.
(B) Both are logical extensions of either natural law or legal positivism.
(C) Both see economic and political primacy as the basis of all legitimate power
(D) Both rely on disciplines not traditionally connected with the study of law.
(E) Both see the practice of opinion-writing as a mediating activity.
13. Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage about the academic study of jurisprudence before the 1970s?
(A) It was concerned primarily with codifying and maintaining the privileges of 　　elites.
(B) It rejected theories that interpreted law as an expression of a group's power.
(C) It seldom focused on how and by what authority judges arrived at opinions.
(D) It was concerned primarily with the study of law as an economic and moral 　　agent.
(E) It was not concerned with such disciplines as anthropology and sociology.
14. Proponents of the Law and Literature movement would most likely agree with which one of the following statements concerning the relationship between the law and judges' written opinions?
(A) The once-stable relationship between law and opinion-writing has been 　　undermined by new and radical theoretical developments
(B) Only the most politically conservative of judges continue to base their 　　opinions on natural law or on legal positivism.
(C) The occurrence of different legal situations requires a judge to adopt diverse 　　theoretical approaches to opinion-writing.
(D) Different judges will not necessarily write the same sorts of opinions when 　　confronted with the same legal situation.
(E) Judges who subseribe to divergent theories of jurisprudence will necessarily 　　render divergent opinions.
15. Which one of the following phrases best describes the meaning of "re-constitute" as that word is used in line 54 of the passage?
(A) categorize and rephrase
(B) investigate and summarize
(C) interpret and refashion
(D) paraphrase and announce
(E) negotiate and synthesize
16. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) identify differing approaches
(B) discount a novel trend
(C) advocate traditional methods
(D) correct misinterpretations
(E) reconcile seeming inconsistencies
　　　Since the early 1920s, most petroleum geologists have favored a 　biogenic theory for the formation of oil. According to this theory, organic 　matter became buried in sediments, and subsequent conditions of 　temperature
(5) and pressure over time transformed it into oil.
　　　Since 1979 an opposing abiogenic theory about the origin of oil has been 　promulgated. According to this theory, what is now oil began as hydrocarbon 　compounds within the earth's mantle (the region
(10) between the core and the crust) during the formation of the earth. Oil was 　created when gasses rich in methanc, the lightest of the hydrocarbons, rose 　from the mantle through fractures and fauhs in the crust, carrying a significant 　amount of heavier hydrocarbons with them.
(15) As the gases encountered intermittent drops in pressure, the heavier 　hydrocarbons condensed, forming oil, and were deposited in reservoirs 　throughout the crust, Rock regions deformed by motions of the crustal plates 　provided the conduits and fracures necessary for the
(20) gases to rise through the crust.
　　　Opponents of the abiogenic theory charge that hydrocarbons could not 　exist in the mantle, because high lemperatures would destroy or break them 　down. Advocates of the theory, however, point out that other
(25) types of carbon exist in the mantle: unoxidized carbon must exist there, 　because diamonds are formed within the mantle before being brought to the 　surface by eruptive processes. Proponents of the abiogenic theory also point 　to recent experimental work that suggests
(30) that the higher pressures within the mantle tend to offset the higher 　temperatures, allowing hydrocarbons, like unoxidized carbon, to continue to 　exist in the mantle.
　　　If the abiogenic theory is correct, vast undiscovered
(35) reservoirs of oil and gas—undiscovened because the biogenic model 　precludes their existence—may in actuality exist. One company owned by 　the Swedish government has found the abiogenic theory so persuasive that it 　has started exploratory drilling for gas
(40) or oil in a granite formation called the Siljan Ring—not the best place to 　look for gas or oil if one belives they are derived from organic compounds, 　because granite forms from magma (molten rock) and contains no organic 　sediments. The ring was formed about 360
(45) million years ago when a large meteorite hit the 600-million-year-old granite 　that forms the base of the continental crust. The impact fractured the granite, 　and the Swedes believe that if oil comes from the mantle, it could have risen 　with methane gas through this now
(50) permeable rock. Fueling their optimism further is the fact that prior to the 　start of drilling, methane gas had been detected rising through the granite.
17. Which one of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Although the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil is derived from the 　　conventional biogenic theory, it suggests new types of locations for oil 　　drilling.
(B) The small number of drilling companies that have responded to the new 　　abiogenic theory about the origin of oil reflects the minimal level of 　　acceptance the theory has met with in the scientific community.
(C) Although the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil fails to explain 　　several enigmas about oil reservoirs, it is superior to the conventional 　　biogenic theory.
(D) Although it has yet to receive either support or refutation by data gathered 　　from a drilling project, the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil offers 　　a plausible alternative to the conventional biogenic theory.
(E) Having answered objections about higher pressures in the earth's core, 　　proponents of the new abiogenic theory have gained broad acceptance for 　　their theory in the scientific community.
18. Which one of the following best describes the function of the third paragraph?
(A) It presents a view opposed to a theory and points out an internal 　　contradiction in that opposing view.
(B) It describes a criticism of a theory and provides countervailing evidence to 　　the criticism.
(C) It identifies a conflict between two views of a theory and revises both views.
(D) It explains an argument against a theory and shows it to be a valid criticism.
(E) It points out the correspondence between an argument against one theory 　　and arguments against similar theories.
19. The passage suggests that the opponents of the abiogenic theory mentioned in the third paragraph would most probably agree with which one of the following statements?
(A) The formation of oil does not involve the condensation of hyarocarbons 　　released from the earth's mantle.
(B) Large oil reserves are often found in locations that contain small amounts of 　　organic matter.
(C) The eruptive processes by which diamonds are brought to the earth's 　　surface are similar to those that aid in the formation of oil.
(D) Motions of the crustal plates often create the pressure necessary to 　　transform organic matter into oil.
(E) The largest known oil reserves may have resulted from organic matter 　　combining with heavier hydrocarbons carried by methane gas.
20. Which one of the following is most analogous to the situation described in the final paragraph?
(A) A new theory about the annual cycles of breeding and migration of the 　　monarch butterfly has led scientists to look for similar patterns in other 　　butterfly species.
(B) A new theory about the stage at which a star collapses into a black hole 　　has led astronomers to search for evidence of black holes in parts of the 　　universe where they had not previously searched.
(C) A new theory about how the emission of sulfur dioxide during coal-burning 　　can be reduced has led several companies to develop desulfurization 　　systems.
(D) A new theory about photosynthesis has convinced a research team to 　　explore in new ways the various functions of the cell membrane in plant 　　cells.
(E) A new theory about the distribution of metals in rock formations has 　　convinced a silver-mining company to keep different types of records of its 　　operations.
21. According to the passage all of the following are true of the Siljan Ring EXCEPT:
(A) It was formed from magma.
(B) It does not contain organic sediments.
(C) Its ring shape existed 500 million years ago.
(D) Methane gas has been detected rising through it
(E) It was shaped from the granite that makes up the base of the continental 　　crust.
　　　Most studies of recent Southeast Asian immigrants to the United States 　have focused on their adjustment to life in their adopted country and on the 　effects of leaving their homelands. James Tollefson's Alien
(5) Winds examines the resettlement process from a different perspective by 　investigating the educational programs offered in immigrant processing 　centers. Based on interviews transcripts from classes, essays by 　immigrants, personal visits to a teacher-training unit,
(10) and official government documents. Tollefson relies on an impressive 　amount and variety of documentation in making his arguments about 　processing centers' educational programs.
　　　Tollefson's main contention is that the emphasis
(15) placed on immediate employment and on teaching the values, attitudes, 　and behaviors that the training personnel think will help the immigrants adjust 　more easily to life in the United States in often counterproductive and 　demoralizing. Because of
(20) concerns that the immigrants be self-supporting as soon as possible, they 　are trained almost exclusively for low-level jobs that do not require English 　proficiency. In this respect. Tollefson claims. The processing centers suit the 　needs of employers more than they suit the
(25) long-term needs of the immigrant community. Tolletson also detects a 　fundamental flaw in the attempts by program educators to instill in the 　immigrants the traditionally Western principles of self-sufficiency and 　individual success. There efforts often
(30) have the effect of undermining the immigrants' sense of community and, in 　doing so, sometimes isolate them from the moral support and even from 　business opportunities afforded by the immigrant community. The programs 　also encourage the immigrants to shed
(35) their cultural traditions and ethnic identity and adopt the lifestyles, beliefs, 　and characteristies of their adopted country if they wish to enter fully into the 　national life.
　　　Tollefson notes that the ideological nature of these
(40) educational programs has roots in the turn-of-the-century educational 　programs designed to assimilate European immigrants into United States 　society. Tollefson provides a concise history of the assimilationist movement 　in immigrant education, in
(45) which European immigrants were encouraged to leave behind the ways of 　the Old World and to adopt instead the principles and practices of the New 　World.
　　　Tollefson ably shows that the issues demanding real attention in the 　educational programs for Southeast
(50) Asian immigrants are not merely employment rates and government 　funding, but also the assumptions underpinning the educational values in the 　programs. He recommends many improvements for the programs, including 　giving the immigrants a stronger voice in
(55) determining their needs and how to meet them, redesigning the curricula, 　and emphasizing long-term language education and job training over 　immediate employment and the avoiding of public assistance, Unfortunately, 　though, Tollefson does not offer enough
(60) concreate solutions as to how these reforms could be carried out, despite 　his own descriptions of the complicated bureaucratic nature of the programs.
22. Which one of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Tollefson's focus on the economic and cultural factors involved in adjusting 　　to a new country offers a significant departure from most studies of 　　Southeast Asian immigration.
(B) In his analysis of educational programs for Southeast Asian immigrants. 　　Tollefson fails to acknowledge many of the positive effects the programs 　　have had on immigrants' lives.
(C) Tollefson convincingly blames the philosophy underlying immigrant 　　educational programs for some of the adjustment problems afflicting 　　Southeast Asian immigrants.
(D) Tollefson's most significant contribution is his analysis of how Southeast 　　Asian immigrants overcome the obstacles they encounter in immigrant 　　educational programs.
(E) Tollefson tractes a gradual yet significant change in the attitudes held by 　　processing center educators toward Southeast Asian immigrants.
23. With which one of the following statements concerning the educational programs of the immigration centers would Tollefson most probably agree?
(A) Although the programs offer adequate job training, they offer inadequate 　　English training.
(B) Some of the programs' attempts to improve the earning power of the 　　immigrants cut them off from potential sources of income.
(C) Inclusion of the history of immigration in the United States in the programs' 　　currcula facilitates adjustment for the immigrants.
(D) Immigrants would benefit if instructors in the programs were better prepared 　　to teach the curricula developed in the teacher-training courses.
(E) The programs' curricula should be redesigned to include greater emphasis 　　on the shared values. beliefs, and practices in the United States.
24. Which one of the following best describes the opinion of the author of the passage with respect to Tollefson's work?
(A) thorough but misguided
(B) innovative but incomplete
(C) novel but contradictory
(D) illuminating but unappreciated
(E) well documented but unoriginal
25. The passage suggests that which one of the following is an assumption underlying the educational approach in immigrant processing centers?
(A) There is a set of values and behaviors that if adopted by immigrants, 　　facilitate adjustment to United States society
(B) When recent immigrants are self-supporting rather than supported by public 　　assistance, they tend to gain English proficiency more quickly
(C) Immediate employment tends to undermine the immigrants sense of 　　community with each other
(D) Long-term success for immigrants is best achieved by encouraging the 　　immigrants to maintain a strong sense of community.
(E) The principles of self-sufficiency and individual success are central to 　　Southeast Asian culture and ethnicity.
26. Which one of the following best describes the function of the first paragraph of the passage?
(A) It provides the scholarly context for Tollefson's study and a description of his 　　methodology
(B) It compares Tollefson's study to other works and presents the main 　　argument of his study.
(C) It compares the types of documents Tollefson uses to those used in other 　　studies
(D) It presents the accepted meory on Tollefson's topic and the method by 　　which Tollefson challenges it
(E) It argues for the analytical and technical superiority of Tollefson's study over 　　other works on the topic
27. The author of the passage refers to Tollefson's descriptions of the bureaucratic nature of the immigrant educational programs in the fourth paragraph most probably in order to
(A) criticize Tollefson's decision to combine a description of the bureaucracies 　　with suggestions for improvement.
(B) emphasize the author's disappointment in Tollefson's overly general 　　recommendations for improvements to the programs.
(C) point out the mony of Tollefson concluding his study with suggestions for 　　drastic changes in the programs
(D) support a contention that Tollefson's recommendations for improvements do 　　not focus on the real sources of the programs' problems
(E) suggest a parallel between the complexity of the bureaucracies and the 　　complexity of Tollefson's arguments

silentwingsUID: 150781

注：这部分LSAT阅读是silentwings的好友LITTLE COW传来的，分别对应于“黄皮书”的SECTION18——22，由于版权问题，这里不提供答案，实在抱歉，我实在无能为力。这里列出仅供参考，大家若有兴趣可以自己去东方或小贩那儿买书，希望大家谅解，如果有大牛（比如“花儿”等）可以提供答案及解析的话，请补上。鉴于很多G友关心LSAT文章，现在silentwings可以告诉大家具体购书可以参考：
上海：同济大学门外的书贩，有兜售；复旦南区国年路上，有书贩兜售
北京：清华大学地下书市；新东方总部门口书摊
（以上信息来自silentwings的同学，具体细节不清楚）
另外大家可以在网上书店或出卖旧资料的人手里获得。
最后祝大家顺利突破阅读关！
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——silentwings
2003年12月27日于丹徒
SECTION 4
Directions: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated for implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question However you jare to choose the best answer. that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
　　　To many developers of technologies that affect public health or the 　environment. "risk communication" means persuading the public that the 　potential risks of such technologies are small and
(5) should be ignored. Those who communicate risks in this way seem to 　believe that lay people do not understand the actual nature of technological 　risk. and they can cite studies asserting that. although people apparently 　ignore mundane hazards that pose
(10) significant danger, they get upset about exotic hazards that pose little 　chance of death or injury. Because some risk communicators take this 　persuasive stance, many lay people see "risk communication" as a 　euphemism for brainwashing done by experts
(15)Since however the goal of risk communication should be to enable people to 　make informed decisions about technological risks, a clear understanding 　about how the public perceives risk is needed. Lay people's definitions of 　"risk" are more likely to reflect
(20) subjective ethical concerns than are experts definitions Lay people for 　example tend to perceive a small risk to children as more significant than a 　large risk to consenting adults who benefit from the risk-creating technology. 　However, if asked to rank hazards
(25) by the number of annual fatalities, without reference to ethical judgments, 　lay people provide quite reasonalbe estimates, demonstrating that they have 　substantial knowledge about many risks. Although some studies claim to 　demonstrate that lay people have inappropriate
(30) concerns about exotic hazards. these studies often use questionable 　methods, such as asking lay people to rank risks that are hard to compare, 　In contrast, a recent study showed that when lay people were given the 　necessary facts and time they understood the specific
(35) risks of electromagnetic fields produced by high-voltage power 　transmission well enough to make informed decisions
　　　Risk communication should therefore be based on the principle that 　people process new information in
(40) the context of their existing beliefs. If people know nothing about a topic 　they will find messages about that topic incomprehensible, If they have 　erroneous beliefs, they are likely to misconstrue the messages. Thus, 　communicators need to know the nature and
(45) extent of recipients knowledge and beliefs in order to design messages 　that will not be dismissed or misinterpreted. This need was demonstrated in a 　research project concerning the public's level of knowledge about risks posed 　by the presence of radon
(50) in the home. Researchers used open-ended interviews and questionnaires 　to determine what information should be included in their brochure on radon. 　Subjects who read the researchers' brochure performed significantly better in 　understanding radon risks than significantly better in understanding radon 　risks than
(55) did a control group who read a brochure that was written using a different 　approach by a government agency. Thus, careful preparation can help risk 　communicators to produce balanced material that tells people what they 　need to know to make decisions
(60) about technological risks
1. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) Risk communicators are effectively addressing the proloferation of complex 　　technologies that have increasing impact on public health and safety.
(B) Risk communicators should assess lay people's understanding of 　　technologies in order to be able to give them the information they need to 　　make reasonable decisions.
(C) Experts who want to communicate to the public about the possible risks of 　　complex technologies must simplify their message to ensure that it is 　　understandable
(D) Risk communication can be perceived as the task of persuading lay people 　　to accept the impact of a particular technology on their lives.
(E) Lay people can be unduly influenced by subjective concerns when making 　　decisions about technological risks.
2. The authors of the passage would be most likely to agree that the primary purpose of risk communication should be to
(A) explain rather than to persuade
(B) promote rather than to justify
(C) influence experts rather than to influence lay people
(D) allay people's fears about mundane hazards rather than about exotic 　　hazards.
(E) foster public acceptance of new technologies rather than to acknowledge 　　people's ethical concerns
3. According to the passage,it is probable that which one of the following will occur when risk communicators attempt to communicate with lay people who have mistaken ideas about a particular technology?
(A) The lay people perceiving that the risk communicators have provided more-　　reliable information, will discard their mistaken notion
(B) The lay people will only partially revise their ideas on the basis of the new 　　information
(C) The lay people fitting the new information into their existing framework will 　　interpret the communication differently that the risk communicators had 　　intended
(D) The lay people misunderstanding the new infromation will further distort the 　　information when they communicate it to other lay people
(E) The lay people will ignore any communication about a technology they 　　consider potentially dangerous
4. Which one of the following is most clearly an example of the kind of risk perception discussed in the "studies" mentioned in line 8?
(A) A skydiver checks the lines on her parachute several times before a jump 　　because tangled lines often keep the parachutes from opening properly
(B) A person decides to quit smoking in order to lesson the probability of lung 　　damage to himself and his family
(C) A homeowner who decides to have her house tested for radon also decides 　　not to allow anyone to smoke in her house
(D) A person who often weaves in and out of traffic while driving his car at 　　excessive speeds worries about meteorites hitting his house
(E) A group of townspeople opposes the building of a nuclear waste dump 　　outsider their town and proposes that the dump be placed in another town.
5. It can be inferred that the authors of the passage would be more likely than would the risk communicators discussed in the first paragraph to emphasize which one of the following?
(A) lay people's tendency to become alarmed about technologies that they find 　　new or strange
(B) lay people's tendency to compare risks that experts would not consider 　　comparable
(C) the need for lay people to adopt scientists' advice about technological risk.
(D) the inability of lay people to rank hazards by the number of fatalities caused 　　annually
(E) the impact of lay people's value systems on their perceptions of risk.
6. According to the passage many lay people believe which one of the following about risk communication?
(A) It focuses excessively on mundane hazards
(B) It is a tool used to manipulate the publie
(C) It is a major cause of inaccuracies in public knowledge about science
(D) It most often funcitions to help people make informed decisions
(E) Its level of effectiveness depends on the level of knowledge its audience 　　already has
　　　In April 1990 representatives of the Pico Korea Union of electronics 　workers in Buchon city, south Korea, traveled to the United States in order to 　demand just settlement of their claims from the parent company
(5) of their employers. who upon the formation of the union had shut down 　operations without paying the workers from the beginning the union cause 　was championed by an unprecedented coalition of Korean American groups 　and deeply affected the Korean American
(10) community on several levels.
　　　First, it served as a rallying focus for a diverse community often divided 　by generation, class and political ideologies. Most notably, the Pico cause 　mobilized many young second-generation Korean
(15) Americans, many of whom had never been part of a political campaign 　before, let alone one involving Korean issues. Members of this generation 　unlike first-generation Korean Americans, generally fall within the more 　privileged sectors of the Korean American
(20) community and often feel alienated from their Korean roots In addition to 　raising the political consciousness of young Korean Americans, the Pico 　struggle sparked among them new interest in their cultural identity The Pieo 　workers also suggested new roles that can be
(25) played by recent immigrants, particularly working-class immigrants These 　immigrants' knowledge of working conditions overseas can help to globalize 　the perspective of their communities and can help to establish international 　ties on a more personal level, as
(30) winessed in the especially warm exchange between the Pico workers and 　recent working-class immigrants from China In addition to broadening the 　political base within the Korean American community, the Pico struggle also 　led to new alliances between the Korean
(35) American community and prograessive labor and social justice groups 　within the larger society—as evidenced in the support received from the 　Coalition of Labor Union Women and leading African American uniontsts.
(40) The reasons for these effects lie in the nature of the cause The issues 　raised by the Pico unionists had such a strong human component that 　differences within the community became secondary to larger concerns for 　social justice and workers' rights The workers'
(45) demands for compensation and respect were unencumbered with strong 　ideological trappings The economic exploitation faced by the Pico workers 　underscored the common interests of Korean workers Korean Americans, the 　working class more inclusively
(50) and a broad spectrum of community leaders
　　　The Pico workers' campaign thus offers an important lesson. It 　demonstrates that ethnic communities need more than just a knowledge of 　history and cuture as artifacts of the past in order to
(55) strengthen their ethnic identity. It shows that perhaps the most effective 　means of empowerment for many ethnic communities of immigrant derivation 　may be an identification with and participation in current struggles for 　economic and social justice in their
(60) countries of origin.
7. Which one of the following best describes the main topic of the passage?
(A) the contribution of the Korean American community to improving the 　　working conditions of Koreans employed by United States companies
(B) the change brought about in the Korean American community by contacts 　　with Koreans visiting the United States
(C) the contribution of recent immigrants from Korea to strengthening ethnic 　　identity in the Korean American community
(D) the effects on the Korean American community of a dispute between 　　Korean union workers and a United States company
(E) the effect of the politicization of second-generation Korean Americans on 　　the Korean American community as a whole
8. The passage suggests that which one of the following was a significant factor in the decision to shut down the Pico plant in Buchon City?
(A) the decreasing profitability of maintaining operations in Korea
(B) the failure to resolve long-standing disputes between the Pico workers and 　　management
(C) the creation of a union by the Pico workers
(D) the withholding of workers' wages by the parent company
(E) the finding of an alternate site for operations
9. which one of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a recent development in the Korean American community?
(A) Young second-generation Korean Americans have begun to take an interest 　　in their Korean heritage
(B) Recent Korean American immigrants of working-class backgrounds have 　　begun to enter the more privileged sectors of the Korean American 　　community
(C) Korean Americans have developed closer ties with activist groups from other 　　sectors of the population
(D) Previously nonpolitical members of teh Korean American community have 　　become more politically active
(E) The Korean American community has been able to set aside political and 　　generational disparities in order to support a common cause
10. It can be inferred that the author of the passage would most likely agree with which one of the following statements about ethnic communities of immigrant derivation?
(A) Such communities can derive important benefits from maintaining ties with 　　their countries of origin
(B) Such communities should focus primarily on promoting study of the history 　　and culture of their people in order to strengthen their ethnic identity
(C) Such communities can most successfully mobilize and politicize their 　　young people by addressing the problems of voung people of all 　　backgrounds
(D) The more privileged sectors of such communities are most likely to maintain 　　a sense of closeness to their cultural roots.
(E) The politicization of such a community is unlikely to affect relations with 　　other groups within the larger society
11. In the second paragraph, the author refers to immigrants from China most probably in order to do which one of the following?
(A) highlight the contrast between working conditions in the United States and 　　in Korea
(B) demonstrate the uniqueness of the problem faced by the Pico workers.
(C) offer an example of the type of role that can be played by recent working-　　class immigrants
(D) provide an analogy for the type of activism displayed by the Korean 　　American community
(E) compare the disparate responses of two immigrant communities to similar 　　problems.
12. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) describe recent developments in the Korean American community that have 　　strongly affected other ethnic communities of immigrant derivation
(B) describe a situation in the Korean American community that presents a 　　model for the empowerment of ethnic communities of immigrant derivation
(C) detial the problems faced by the Korean American community in order to 　　illustrate the need for the empowerment of ethnic communities of immigrant 　　derivation
(D) argue against economic and social injustice in the countries of origin of 　　ethnic communities of immigrant derivation
(E) assess the impact of the unionization movement on ethnic communities of 　　immigrant derivation
13. Which one of the following most accurately states the function of the third paragraph?
(A) It explains why the Pico workers brought their cause to the United States
(B) It explains how the Pico cause differed from other causes that had 　　previously mobilized the Korean American community
(C) It explains why the Pico workers were accorded such broad support
(D) It explains how other ethnic groups of immigrant derivation in the United 　　States have profited from the example of the Pico workers?
(E) It expains why different generations of Korean Americans reacted in different 　　ways to the Pico cause
　　　In recent years, scholars have begun to use social science tools to 　analyze court opinions. These scholars have justifiably criticized traditional 　legal research for its focus on a few cases that may not be representative
(5) and its fascination with arcane matters that do not affect real people with 　real legal problems. Zirkel and Schoenfeld, for example, have championed the 　application of social science tools to the analysis of case law surrounding 　discrimination against women in
(10) higher education employment Their studies have demonstrated how these 　social science tools may be used to serve the interests of scholars lawyers 　and prospective plaintiffs as well However their enthustasm for the outcomes 　analysts technique
(15) seems misguided
　　　Of fundamental concern is the outcomes analysts assumption that 　simply counting the number of successful and unsuccessful plaintiffs will be 　useful to prospective plaintiffs Although the odds are clearly
(20) against the plaintiff in sex discrimination cases, plaintiffs who believe that 　their cause is just and that they will prevail are not swayed by such evidence, 　In addition, because lawsuits are so different in the details of the case in the 　quality of the evidence the plantiff
(25) presents and in the attitude of the judge toward academic plaintiffs giving 　prospective plaintiffs statisties about overall outcomes without analyzing the 　reason for these outcomes is of marginal assistance Outcomes analysis for 　example ignores the fact that in
(30) certain academie sex discrimination cases—those mvolving serious 　procedural violations or meriminating evidence in the form of written 　admissions of discriminatory practices—plaintiffs are much more likely to 　prevail
(35) Two different approaches offer more useful applications of social science 　tools in analyzing sex discrimination cases One is a process called "policy 　capturing" in which the researcher reads each opinion identifies variables 　discussed in the opinion such as
(40) the regularity of employer evaluations of the plaintiff performance training of 　evaluatots and the kind of evaluation instrument used and then uses 　multrvariate analvsis to determine whether these variables predict the 　outcome of the lawsuit The advantage of ploicy
(45) capturing research is that it attempts to explain the reason for the 　outcome, rather than simply reporting the outcome and identifies factors that 　contribute to a plaintiff's success or failure Taking a slightly different 　approach, other scholars have adopted a technique that
(50) requires reading complete transcripts of all sex discrmination cases 　litigated during a certain time period to identify variables such as the nature of 　the allegedly illegal conduct the consequences for employers and teh nature 　of the remedy as well as the
(55) factors that contributed to the verdict and the kind of evidence necessary 　for the plaintiff to prevail While the findings of these studies are limited to the 　period covered they assist potential plaintiffs and defendants in assessing 　their cases.
14. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) The analysis of a limited number of atypical discrimination suits of little 　　value to potential plaintiffs
(B) When the number of factors analyzed in a sex discrimination suit is 　　increased the validity of the conclusions drawn becomes suspect
(C) Scholars who are critical of traditional legal research frequently offer 　　alternative approaches that are also seriously flawed
(D) Outcomes analysis has less predictive value in sex discrimination cases 　　than do certain other social science techniques
(E) Given adequate information, it is possible to predict with considerable 　　certainty whether a plaintiff will be successful in a discrimination suit
15. It can be inferred from the author's disccussion of traditional legal research that the author is
(A) frustrated because traditional legal research has not achieved its full 　　potential
(B) critical because traditional legal research has little relevance to those 　　actually involved in cases
(C) appreciative of the role traditional legal research played in developing later 　　more efficient approaches
(D) derisive because traditional legal research has outlasted its previously 　　significant role
(E) grateful for the ability of traditional legal ressearch to develop unique types 　　of evidence
16. Which one of the following statements about Zirkel and Schoenfeld can be inferred from the passage?
(A) They were the first scholars to use social science tools in amlyzing legal 　　cases
(B) They confined their studies to the outcomes analysis technique.
(C) They saw no value in the analysis provided by traditional legal research.
(D) They rejected policy capturing as being too limited in scope
(E) They believed that the information generated by outcomes analysis would 　　be relevant for plaintiffs.
17. The author's characterization of traditional legal research in the first paragraph is intended to
(A) provide background information for the subsequent discussion
(B) summarize an opponent's position
(C) argue against the use of social science tools in the analysis of sex 　　discrimination cases
(D) emphasize the fact that legal researchers act to the detriment of potential 　　plaintiffs
(E) reconcile traditional legal researchers to the use of social science tools.
18. The information in the passage suggests that plaintiffs who pursue sex discrimination cases despite the statisties provided by outcomes analysis can best be likened to
(A) athletes who continue to employ training techniques despite their 　　knowledge of statistical evidence indicating that these techniques are 　　ulikely to be effective
(B) lawyers who handle lawsuits for a large number of clients in the hope that 　　some percentage will be successful
(C) candidates for public office who are more interested in making a political 　　statement than in winning an election
(D) supporters of a cause who recruit individuals sympathetic to it in the belief 　　that large numbers of supporters will lend the cause legitimacy
(E) purchasers of a charity's raffle tickets who consider the purchase a 　　contribution because the likelihood of winning is temote
19. The policy-capturing approach differs from the approach described in lines 48-59 in that the latter approach
(A) makes use of detailed information on a greater number of cases
(B) focuses more directly on issues of concern to litigants
(C) analyzes information that is more recent and therefore reflects current 　　trends
(D) allows assessment of aspects of a case that are not specifically mentioned 　　in a judge's opinion
(E) eliminates any distortion due to personal bias on the part of the researcher
20. Which one of the following best describes the organizatin of the passage?
(A) A technique is introduced, its shortcomings are summarized, and 　　alternatives are described
(B) A debate is introduced, evidence is presented, and a compromise is 　　reached
(C) A theory is presented, clarification is provided, and a plan of further 　　evaluation is suggested
(D) Standards are established, hypothetical examples are analyzed, and the 　　criteria are amended
(E) A position is challenged, its shortcomings are categorized, and the 　　challenge is revised.
　　　A fake can be defined as an artwork intended to deceive. The motives of 　its creator are decisive, and the merit of the object itself is a separate issue. 　The question mark in the title of Mark Jones's Fake? The
(5) Arl of Deception reveals the study's broader concerns Indeed, it might 　equally be entitled Original? and the text begins by noting a variety of 　possibilities somewhere between the two extremes. These include works by 　an artist's followers in the style of the master.
(10) deliberate archaism, copying for pedagogical purposes, and the production 　of commercial facsimiles
　　　The greater part of Fake? is devoted to a Chronological survey 　suggesting that faking feeds on the many different motives people have for 　collecting
(15) art, and that, on the whole, the faking of art flourishes whenever art 　collecting flourishes. In imperial Rome there was a widespread interest in 　collecting earlier Greek art, and therefore in faking it. No doubt many of the 　seulptures now exhibited as "Roman copies" were
(20) originally passed off as Greek. In medieval Europe. because art was 　celebrated more for its devotional uses than for its provenance or the 　ingenuity of its creators the faking of art was virtually nonexistent. The 　modern age of faking began in the ltalian Renaissance, with
(25) two linked developments a passionate identification with the world of 　antiquity and a growing sense of individual artistie identity A patron of the 　young Michelangelo prevailed upon the artist to make his Seulpture Sleeping 　Chpld look as though it had been
(30) buried in the earth so that "it will be taken for antique, and you will sell it 　much better." Within a few years however beginning with his first masterpiece 　the Bacchus, Michelangelo had shown his contemporaries that great art can 　assimilate and transcend what came
(35) before resulting in a wholly original work. Soon his genius made him the 　object of imitators.
　　　Fake? also reminds us that in certain cuitures authenticity is a foreign 　concept This is true of much African art when the authenticity of an object is
(40) considered by collectors to depend on its function As an illustration, the 　study commpares two versions of a chi wara mask made by the Bambara 　people of Mali One has pegs allowing it to be attached to a cap for its 　intended ceremonial purpose. The second, otherwise
(45) identical, lacks the pegs and is a replica made for sale African carving is 　notoriously difficult to date, but even if the ritual mask is recent, made 　perhaps to replace a damaged predecessor, and the replica much older, only 　the ritual mask should be seen as authentic
(50) for it is tied to the form's original function. That at least is the consensus of 　the so-called experts. One wonders whether the Bambaran artists would 　agree
21. The passage can best be described as doing which one of the following?
(A) recondciling varied points of view
(B) chronicling the evolution of a phenomenon
(C) exploring a complex question
(D) advocating a new approach
(E) rejecting an inadequate explanation
22. Which one of the following best expresses the author's main point?
(A) The faking of art has occurred throughout history and in virtually every 　　culture.
(B) Whether a work of art is fake or not is less important than whether it has 　　artistic merit
(C) It is possible to show that a work of art is fake, but the authenticity of a 　　work cannot be proved conclusively
(D) A variety of circumstances make it difficult to determine whether a work of 　　art can appropriately be called a fake
(E) Without an international market to support it, the faking of art would cease.
23. According to the passage an artwork can be definitively classified as a fake if the person who created it
(A) consciously adopted the artistic style of an influential mentor
(B) deliberately imitated a famous work of art as a learning exercise
(C) wanted other people to be fooled by its appearance
(D) made multiple, identical copies of the work available for sale
(E) made the work resemble the art of an earlier era.
24. The author provides at least one example of each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) categories of art that are neither wholly fake not wholly original
(B) cultures in which the faking of art flourished
(C) qualities that art collectors have prized in their acquisitions
(D) cultures in which the categories "fake" and "original" do not apply
(E) contemporary artists whose works have inspired fakes
25. The author implies which one of the following about the artistie merits of fakes?
(A) Because of the circumstances of its production a fake cannot be said to 　　have true artistic merit
(B) A fake can be said to have artistic merit only if the attempted deception is 　　successful
(C) A fake may or may not have artistic merit in its own right, regardless of the 　　circumstances of its production
(D) Whether a fake has artistic merit depends on whether its creator is 　　accomplished as an artist
(E) The artistic merit of a fake depends on the merit of the original work that 　　inspited the fake
26. By the standard described in the last paragraph of the passage, which one of the following would be considered authentic?
(A) an ancient Roman copy of an ancient Greek sculpture
(B) a painting begun by Renaissance master and finished by his assistants 　　after his death
(C) a print of a painting signed by the artist who painted the original
(D) a faithful replica of a ceremonial crown that preserves all the details of and is 　　indistinguishable from the original
(E) a modern reconstruction of a medieval altarpiece designed to serve its 　　traditional role in a service of worship
27. Which one of the following best describes how the last paragraph functions in the context of the passage?
(A) It offers a tentative answer to a question posed by the author in the opening 　　paragraph
(B) It summarizes an account provided in detail in the preceding paragraph
(C) It provides additional support for an argument advanced by the author in the 　　preceding paragraph
(D) It examines another facet of a distinction developed in the preceding 　　paragraphs
(E) It affirms the general principle enunciated at the beginning of the passage

SECTION 5
Directions: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question However, you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions. and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
　　　Many literary scholars believe that Zora Neale Hurston's Their Eyes 　Were Watching God (1937) has been the primary influence on some of the 　most accomplished Black women writing in the United
(5) States today. Indeed, Alice Walker, the author of the prize-winning novel The 　Color Purple. has said of Their Eyes. "There is no book more important to me 　than this one." Thus, it seems necessary to ask why Their Eyes, a work now 　viewed by a multitude
(10) of readers as remarkably successful in its complex depiction of a Black 　woman's search for self and community. was ever relegated to the margins of 　the literary canon
　　　The details of the novel's initial reception help
(15) answer this question. Unlike the recently rediscovered and rerexamined 　work of Harriet Wilson. Their Eyes was not totally ignored by book reviewers 　upon its publication. In fact, it received a mixture of positive and negative 　reviews both from
(20) White book reviewers working for prominent periodicals and from important 　figures within Black literary circles In the Saturday Review of Literanre George 　Stevens wrote that "the narration is exactly right, because most of it is 　dialogue and the
(25) dialogue gives us a constant sense of character in action The negative 　criticism was partially a result of Hurston's ideological differences with other 　members of the Black Americans in literature. Black
(30) writers of the 1940s believed that the Black artist's primary responsibility 　was to create protest fiction that explored the negative effects of racism in the 　United States. For example, Richard Wright, the author of the much 　acclaimed Native Son (1940)
(35) wrote that Their Eyes had "no theme" and "no message" Most crities and 　readers' expectations of Black literature rendered them unable to appreciate 　Hurston's subtle delineation of the life of an ordinary Black woman in a Black 　community
(40) and the novel went quietly out of print
　　　Recent acclaim for Their Eyes results from the emergence of feminist 　literary criticism and the development of standards of evaluation specific to 　the work of Black writers; these kinds of criticism
(45) changed readers' expectations of art and enabled them to appreciate 　Hurston's novel The emergence of feminist criticism was crucial because 　such criticism brought new attention to neglected works such as Hurston's 　and alerted readers to Hurston's
(50) exploration of women's issues in her fictionl. The Afroncentric standards of 　evaluation were equally important to the rediscovery of Their Eyes, for such 　standards provided readers with the tools to recognize and appreciate the 　Black folklore and
(55) oral storytelling traditions Hurston incorporated within her work. In one of 　the most illuminating discussions of the novel to date. Henry Louis Gates Jr. 　states that "Hurston's strategy seems to concern itself with the possibilities 　of representation of the
(60) speaking Black voice in writing"
1. The passage suggests which one of the following about Harriet Wilson's novel?
(A) It was written at the same time as Their Eyes Were Watching God, but it 　　did not receive as much critical attention.
(B) It greatly influenced Black women writing after the 1940s.
(C) It was widely read when it was published but it has not received attention 　　from literary crities until recently.
(D) It was not formally published, and the manuscript has only recently been 　　discovered by literary crities.
(E) It did not receive critical attention when it was published, but it has recently 　　become the subject of critical study.
2. The passage offers support for which one of the following statements about literary reviewers and Their Eyes Were Watching God?
(A) Their Eyes was widely acclaimed by reviewers upon its publication. even 　　though it eventually went out of print.
(B) The eventual obscurity of Their Eyes was not the result of complete neglect 　　by reviewers
(C) Some early reviewers of Their Eyes interpreted the novel from a point of view 　　that later became known as Afrocentric
(D) Their Eyes was more typical of the protest fiction of the 1940s than 　　reviewers realized
(E) Most early reviewers of Their Eyes did not respond positively to the book.
3. Which one of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Hurston's Their Eyes Were Watching God had little in common with novels 　　written by Blank authors during the 1940s.
(B) Feminist critics and authors such as Alice Walker were instrumental in 　　establishing Hurston's Their Eyes Were Watching God as an important 　　part of the American literary canon.
(C) Crities and readers were unable to appreciate fully Hurston's Their Eyes 　　Were Watching God until crties applied new standards of evaluation to the 　　novel
(D) Hurston's Their Eyes Were Watching God was an important influence on 　　the protest fiction written by Black writers in the mid-twentieth century.
(E) Afrocentric strategies of analysis have brought attention to the use of oral 　　storytelling traditions in novels written by Black Americans such as 　　Hurston's Their Eyes Were Watching God.
4. According to the passage which one of the following is true of Black folklore traditions as used in literature written in the United States?
(A) They are an aspect of Black American literature first recognized and written 　　about by Henry Louis Gates. Jr
(B) They were not widely incorporated into novels written by Black Americans 　　until after the 1940s
(C) They were first used by a novelist in Zora Neale Hurston's Their Eyes Were 　　Watching God
(D) They were not incorporated into novels published by Black Americans in the 　　1940s
(E) They are an aspect of Black literature that some readers did not fully 　　appreciate until relatively recently.
5. The passage suggests that Native Son differes from Their Eyes Were Watching God in which one of the following ways?
(A) It received fewer positive reviews at the time of its publication than did Their 　　Eyes
(B) It is less typical of literature written by Black Americans during the 1940s 　　than is Then Eyes
(C) It is less focused on an ordinary individual's seareh for self within a Black 　　community than is Then Eyes.
(D) It deniets more aspects of Black American folklore than does Their Eyes.
(E) It has received more attention from feinist and Afrocentric literary critics than 　　Their Eyes
6. Which one of the following provides the clearest example of the kind of fiction that many Black writers of the 1940s, as their views are described in the passage, believed should be written?
(A) a novel that focuses on the interrelationships among four generations of 　　Black women
(B) a historical novel that re-creates actual events that occurred as Black 　　people suffered from oppression and racial injustice in a small town
(C) a novel, based on biographical stories orally relayed to the author as a child, 　　that describes the development of traditions in a Black family
(D) a novel that explores the psychological aspects of a relationship between a 　　White man and a Black man as they work together to organize protests 　　against unjust working conditions
(E) a novel that examines the different ways in which three Black children 　　experience their first day of school in a rural community
7. The author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about the relationship between art and literary criticism?
(A) The long-term reputation of a work of art is less dependent on the response 　　of literary critics than on the response of readers and authors
(B) Experimental works of fiction are usually poorly received and misunderstood 　　by lterary crities when they are first published
(C) The response of literary critics to a work of art can be determined by certain 　　ideological perspectives and assumptions about the purpose of art
(D) Literary critics do not significantly affect the way most people interpret and 　　appreciate literature.
(E) The ideological bases of a work of art are the first consideration of most 　　literary critics.
8. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) correct a misconception
(B) explain a reassessment
(C) reconcile two points of view
(D) criticize a conventional approach
(E) announce a new discovery
　　　Legal cases can be termed "hard" cases if they raise issues that are 　highly controversial, issues about which people with legal training disagree. 　The ongoing debate over the completeness of the
(5) law usually concerns the extent to which such haard cases are legally 　determinate, or decidable according to existing law.
　　　H L A Hart's The Concept of Law is still the clearest and most persuasive 　statement of both the
(10) standard theory of hard cases and the standard theory of law on which it 　rests. For Hart the law consists of legal rules formulated in general terms; 　these terms he calls "open textured" which means that they contain a "core" 　of settled meaning and a
(15) "penumbra" or "periphery" where their meaning is not determinate. For 　example, suppose an ordinance prohibits the use of vehicles in a park. 　"Vehicle" has a core of meaning which includes cars and motoreycles But. 　Hart claims, other
(20) vehicles, such as bicycles, fall within the peripheral meaning of "vehicle" so 　that the law does not establish whether they are prohibited. There will always 　be cases not covered by the core meaning of legal terms within existing laws. 　Hart considers
(25) these cases to be legally indeterminate. Since courts cannot decide such 　cases on legal grounds they must consider nonlegal (for example, moral and 　political) grounds, and thereby exercise judicial discretion to make, rather 　than apply law
(30) In Ronald Dworkin's view the law is richer than Hart would grant: he denies 　that the law consists solely of explicit rules. The law also includes principles 　that do not depend for their legal status on any prior official recognition or 　enactment
(35) Dworkin claims that many cases illustrate the existence of legal principles 　that are different from legal rules and that Hart's model of rules cannot 　accommodate. For Dworkin, legal rules apply in an all-or-nothing fashion 　whereas legal principles do
(40) not they provide the rationale for applying legal rules. Thus, because 　Dworkin thinks there is law in addition to legal rules, he thinks that legal 　indeterminacy and the need for judicial discretion do not follow from the 　existence of open texture in
(45) legal rules
　　　It would be a mistakethough to dispute Hart's theory of hard cases on 　this basis alone If Hart's claim about the "open texture" of general terms is 　true, then we should expect to find legal
(50) indeterminacies even if the law consists of principles in addition to rules 　Legal principles as well as legal rules contain general terms that have open 　texture. And it would be absurd to suppose that wherever the meaning of a 　legal rule is unclear
(55) there is a legal principle with a clear meaning Most interesting and 　controversial cases will occur in the penumbra of both rules and principles.
9. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) The law will never be complete because new situations will always arise 　　which will require new laws to resolve them.
(B) The most difficult legal cases are those concerning controversial issues 　　about which trained legal minds have differing opinions.
(C) The concept of legal principles does not diminish the usefulness of the 　　concept of the open texture of general terms in deciding whether hard 　　cases are legally determinate.
(D) The concept of legal principles is a deleterious addition to the theory of law 　　since any flaws exhibited by legal rules could also be shared by legal 　　principles.
(E) The inherent inconsistency of terms used in laws provides a continuing 　　opportunity for judges to exercise their discretion to correct defect and 　　gaps in the law.
10. According to the passage the term "legal principles" as used by Dworkin refers to
(A) a comprehensive code of ethics that governs the behavior of professionals in 　　the legal system
(B) explicit analyses of the terms used in legal rules indicating what meanings 　　the terms do and do not cover
(C) legal doctrines that underlie and guide the use of accepted legal rules
(D) legal rules that have not yet passed through the entire legislative procedure 　　necessary for them to become law
(E) the body of legal decisions regarding cases that required judicial discretion 　　for their resolution
11. Which one of the following expresses a view that the author of the passage would most proably hold concerning legal principles and legal rules?
(A) Legal rules are applied more often than legal principles when a case involves 　　issues about which legal professionals disagree.
(B) Both legal rules and legal principles are officially recognized as valid parts of 　　the law.
(C) Hart's "model of rules" has been superseded by a "model of principles" that 　　sheds light on legal determinacy.
(D) Legal principles are just as likely as legal rules to have terms that have both 　　core and peripheral meanings
(E) Legal principles eliminate the need for judicial discretion in resolving the 　　problems generated by the open texture of legal rules.
12. In the passage, the author uses the example of the word "vehicle" to
(A) illustrate a legal rule that necessarily has exceptions
(B) show how legal principles are applied in the construction of legal rules
(C) represent the core of settled meaning of a legal term
(D) serve as an example of a legal term with both a core and a periphery of 　　meaning
(E) provide a counterexample to Hart's concept of the open texture of legal 　　terms
13. It can be inferred that the author of the passage regards Hart's theory of hard cases and the theory of standard law as
(A) exhaustive
(B) worthy of respect
(C) interesting but impractical
(D) plausible but unwieldy
(E) hopelessly outmoded
14. Which one of the following is true of the term "legally determinate" (line 6) as it is used in the passage?
(A) It represents the idea that every crime should have a fixed penalty rather 　　than a range of penalties within which a judge can make an arbitrary choice
(B) It refers to a legal case that can be definitively resolved in favor of one side 　　or the other according to the law in effect at the time
(C) It describes a legal rule that requires judges to limit their actions to applying 　　written law when deciding cases over which people with legal training 　　disagree
(D) It refers to any legal case that involves terms with imprecise meanings and 　　thus relies for its resolution only on the determination of judges.
(E) It refers to procedures for determining the legal outcome of complex issues 　　in difficult cases.
15. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) outlining the problems that might be faced by a legislature attempting to 　　create a complete body of law that would prevent judges from making 　　rather than applying the law
(B) justifying the idea that "hard" cases will always exist in the practice of law, 　　no matter what laws are written or how they are applied
(C) presenting evidence to support Dworkin's idea that legal rules apply in an 　　all-or-nothing fashion whereas legal principles apply in more sophisticated 　　ways
(D) critiquing the concept of the open texture of legal terms as a conceptual 　　flaw in Hart's otherwise well-regarded book.
(E) demonstrating that Dworkin's concept of legal principles does not form the 　　basis for a successful attack on Hart's theory of legally indeterminate 　　cases
　　　One way governments can decrease air pollution is to impose a tax on 　industrial carbon dixide emissions. But why should governments consider a 　carbon tax when they could control emissions by
(5) establishing energy efficiency and conservation standards, by legislating 　against coal use or by increasing inverstment in nuclear? The great virtue of 　such a tax is that it would provide incentives for industry to achieve emission
(10) reductions. Because oil emits more carbon dioxide per unit of energy 　generated than does natural gas, and coal more than oil,a carbon tax would 　vary with the type of fuel.Such a tax would induce industry to substitute less-　polluting fuels for those carrying a
(15) higher tax and also to reduce the total use of energy
　　　However it is not clear how high such a tax should be or what its 　economic and environmental implications would be. At first glance, it is not
(20) difficult to estimate roughly the size of the tax needed to effect a given level 　of emission reduction. One writer estimates for example that a tax of 41 　percent on the price of coal 33 percent on oil and 25 percent on gas would 　reduce the United
(25) Kingdom's emissions by 20 percent (using 1988 as the base year) by the 　year 2005 the target recommended by the 1988 Toronto Conference. It should 　be noted however that these numbers ignore the effect of the tax on 　economic growth, and
(30) hence on emissions, and assume that past responses to a price rise will 　be replicated in the future These numbers are also based on the assumption 　that all countries will behave cooperatively in imposing a carbon tax.
(35) There are very strong reasons to believe that cooperation would be difficult 　to win. If most countries cooperated. then any country that chose not to 　cooperate would be advantaged it would have no abatement costs, and the 　effect on the
(40) environment of its defection would be relatively small. Because of this "free 　rider" effect cooperation on a scale needed to reduce carbon dioxide 　emissions might prove elusive
　　　Should countries act unilaterally to durb
(45) emissions? If a country were to act unilaterally the benefits would be 　spread across the globe, whereas the costs would fall solely on the country 　taking the action. The action would reduce emissions globally and the effect 　of this would be to reduce the benefit
(50) other countries would receive if they reduced emissions. As a 　consequence other countries would have less incentive to reduce emissions 　and would probably emit more carbon dioxide than they would have if the 　unilateral action had not been taken
(55) The entire effect of the emission reduction may not be lost, but it would 　surely be dimminished by this free-riding behavior
16. According to the passage, the size of the carbon tax levied on a given fuel would vary with the
(A) amount of that fuel used by a particular industry
(B) amount of pollution caused by the fuel being taxed
(C) size of the industries using the fuel being taxed
(D) effect that the tax would have on a country's economy
(E) number of usuers of a particular fuel at a particular time
17. The author mentions the estimates of "One writer" (line 22) primarily in order to
(A) indicate in a general way the size that a carbon tax must be for it to be 　　effective.
(B) provide the most accurate information available about the most practical 　　size for a carbon tax
(C) suggest that the target recommended by the 1988 Toronto Conference is an 　　unrealistic one
(D) undermine the argument that a carbon tax would provide incentives for 　　user's to achieve emissions reductions
(E) show how the size of an effective carbon tax can be calculated
18. Which one of the following circumstances would most seriously undermine the conclusion "Such a tax would induce induce industry to substitute less-polluting fuels for those carrying a higher tax" (lines 13-15)
(A) The fuel taxed a the highest rate costs considerably less to buy than fuels 　　taxed at lower rates
(B) The goal set by the Toronto Conference cannot be reached unless each fuel 　　it taxed at a much higher rate
(C) The tax on coal represents a much greater cost increase than does the tax 　　on oil or gas
(D) It is discovered that gas produces even less carbon dioxide per unit of 　　energy generated than was previously thought.
(E) It is discovered that coal produces even more carbon dioxide per unit of 　　energy generated than are previously thought.
19. The passage is primarily intended to answer which one of the following questions?
(A) How high a tax should a country's government impose on carbon dioxide 　　emissions?
(B) What issues should a country's government consider before deciding 　　whether to impose a tax on carbon dioxide emissions?
(C) What assumptions underlie a country's decision to impose a tax on carbon 　　dioxide emissions?
(D) How can the effects of industrial pollution on the Earth's atmosphere be 　　decreased?
(E) What can be done to increase the effectiveness of any tax that a country 　　imposes on carbon dioxide emissions?
20. In response to the question. "Should countries act unilaterally to curb emissions?" (line 44-45) the author would be most likely to contend that a country should
(A) not act unilaterally because although that country would receive some 　　benefits from such action other countries would most likely be harmed by it
(B) not act unilaterally because unilateral action would have no benefits for other 　　countries
(C) not act unilaterally because the cost to that country would not be justified 　　by the limited effect that such action would have on industrial pollution 　　worldwide
(D) act unilaterally because that country's economy would benefit from the 　　resulting reduction in industrial emissions worldwide
(E) act unilaterally because other countries might well be inspired to follow that 　　country's example
21. Which one of the following is most parallel to the "free rider" effect mentioned in line 41?
(A) An industry agrees to base itself in a city where there has been little 　　industrial development only if the city will rezone the specific property the 　　industry desires.
(B) Because fares for public transportation are rising a commuter decides to 　　bicycle to work rather than to use public transportation i a city where auto 　　emissions are a problem
(C) An apartment dweller begins to recycle newspapeers even though no one 　　else in the building does so and recycling is not required by law
(D) In an area where groundwater has become polluted a homeowner continues 　　to buy bottled water rather than contribute to a neighborhood fund to 　　combat pollution
(E) In an area where overgrazing is a severe problem a shepherd allows his 　　sheep to continue grazing common field even though his neighbors have 　　agreed to buy feed for their animals until regrowth occurs
　　　Some meteorologists have insisted that the severity of the drought in 　sub-Saharan West Africa and its long duration (nearly 40 years to date) must 　be a sign of a long term alteration in climate
(5) Among the theories proposed to explain this change one hypothesis that 　has gained widespread attention attributes the drought to a cooling of the 　Northern Hemisphere. This hypothesis is based on the fact that between 　1945 and the early 1970s the
(10) average annual air temperatures over the landmasses of the Northern 　Hemisphere decreased by about half a degree Fahrenheit (approximately one 　quarter of a degree Celsius—a samll but significant amount). Several 　meterologists have
(15) suggested that this cooling was caused by an increase in atmospheric 　dust emanating from volcanic eruptions and from urban and industrial 　pollution the dust reflected incoming sunlight. causing the ground to receive 　less solar radiation
(20) and to transfer less heart to the atmosphere. The cooling seemed to be 　more pronounced in the middle and high latitudes than in the tropies an 　observation that is consistent with the fact that the Sun's rays enter the 　atmosphere at a greater angle
(25) farther north and so have to pass through more dust-laden atmosphere on 　the way to the Earth.
　　　Since winds are set in motion by differences in air pressure caused by 　unequal heating of the atmosphere supporters of the cooling hypothesis
(30) have argued that a growing temperature differential between the unusually 　cool middle and high latitudes and the warm tropical latitudes is causing a 　southward expansion of the circumpolar vortex—the high-altitude westerly 　winds that circle
(35) the Northern Hemisphere at middle latitudes According to this hypothesis 　as the circumpolar vortex expands, it forces south other components of large-　scale atmospheric circulation and in effect displaces the northward-moving 　monsoon that
(40) ordinarily bring sub-Saharan rain Proponents have further argued that this 　change in atmospheric circulation might be long-term since cooling in the 　Northern Hemisphere could be perpetuated by increases in ice and snow 　coverage there which
(45) would lead to reflection of more sunlight away from the Earth to further 　cooling and indirectly to further drought in sub-Saharan West Africa
　　　Despite these are ptedtctions and even though the current African 　drought has lasted longer than
(50) any other in this century the notion that the drough is caused by cooling of 　the Northern Hemisphere is. fact not well supported Contrary to the 　predictions of the cooling hypothesis, during one period of rapid Northern 　Hemisphere cooling
(55) in the early 1950s, the sub-Sahara was unusually rain Moreover in the early 　1980s, when the drought was particularly severe Northern Hemisphere lands 　actually warmed slightly. And furhter doubt has been cast on the hypothesis 　by
(60) recent analyses suggesting that when surface temperatures of water as 　well as land are taken into account the Northern Hemisphere may not have 　cooled at all
22. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) There is strong evidence to support the theory that an increase in 　　atmospheric dust has contributed to the severity of the drought in sub-　　Saharan West Africa
(B) The suggestion that Northern Hemisphere cooling is contributing to a 　　decline of rainfall in sub-Saharan West Africa is open to question
(C) The expansion of the circumpolar vortex has caused a dramatic shift in the 　　atmospheric circulation patterns above sub-Saharan West Africa
(D) The drought in sub-Saharan West Africa represents a long-term permanent 　　alteration in global climake patterns
(E) Meteorologists cannot determine when the droutht in sub-Saharan West 　　Africa is likely to end
23. The author's attitude toward the cooling hypothesis is best described as one of
(A) vehement opposition
(B) cautious skepticism
(C) growing ambivalence
(D) guarded enthusiasm
(E) strong support
24. According to the passage proponents of the cooling hypothesis suggested that the circumpolar vortex is likely to expand when which one of the following occurs?
(A) The average annual atmoshperic temperature of the tropics is significantly 　　higher than normal for an extended period of time.
(B) The average annual snowfall in the Northern Hemisphere is lower than 　　normal for an extended period of time.
(C) The average annual surface temperature of Northern Hemisphere waters is 　　higher than the average annual surface temperature of Northern 　　Hemisphere landmasses
(D) There is a significant increase in the difference between the average annual 　　atmospheric temperature of the tropies and that of the more northern 　　latitudes
(E) There is a significant increase in the difference between the average annual 　　atmospheric temperatures of the middle and the high latitudes in the 　　Northern Hemisphere.
25. Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage about the average annual temperature of the air over Northern Hemisphere landmasses before 1945?
(A) It was higher than it was between 1945 and the early 1970s.
(B) It was lower than it was during the early 1980s.
(C) It was the same as it was between 1945 and the early 1970s.
(D) It was the same as the annual average surface temperature of Northern 　　Hemisphere landmasses and bodies of water between 1945 and the early 　　1970s.
(E) It was higher than the annual average surface temperature of Northern 　　Hemisphere landmasses and bodies of water between 1945 and the early 　　1970s.
26. Which one of the following best deseribes the organization of the passage?
(A) Opposing points of view are presented evidence supporting each point of 　　view is discussed and then one point of view is developed into a formal 　　hypothesis
(B) A theory is discussed and different points of view about the theory are 　　discussed supported and then reconciled
(C) A hypothesis is proposed contradictory evidence is discussed and then the 　　hypothesis is amended
(D) A theory explaining a phenomenon is proposed supporting evidence is 　　considered and then the theory is disputed
(E) A point of view is presented a theory supporting the view is proposed 　　contradictory evidence is presented and then a different theory is proposed.
27. A proponent of the cooling hypothesis would most likely argue that the return of the monsoon rains to sub-Saharan West Africa would indicate that which one of the following has also occurred?
(A) The amount of ice and snow coverage over the landmasses of the Northern 　　Hemisphere has increased
(B) The average annual temperature of the atmosphere over the middle and high 　　latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere has decreased
(C) The average annual temperature of the atmosphere over the tropics in the 　　Northern Hemisphere has increased
(D) Other components of large-scale atmospheric circulation besides the 　　circumpolar vortex have expanded and moved southward
(E) The atmospheric circulation pattern of the high-altitude westerly winds has 　　resumed its normal pattern

blueqiaoUID: 111634

非常感谢！敬礼

ILwiN_WhuTUID: 143305

谢谢啊，有没有电子版啊，谢谢!

鬼谷子UID: 159645

有没有答案啊?