有木有潜伏在G版的托福党啊，寻找托福口语小伙伴啊！！

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

wfxmfwjw 发表于 2015-5-18 20:53
518
阅读完成9004,9010,9102
填空陈圣元6个，刚开时填空，错的有些惨不忍睹。我的小心脏啊···

我现在做的都是老G阅读~~你刷多了就见到了~
magoosh都快过期了还木有做完T_T
加油！我刚开始做陈圣元，清楚地记得第三个section全错了。。。

https://bbs.gter.net/thread-1829055-1-1.html
分享一篇励志贴
PS好伤心，我每次明明都挺努力的（和这位楼主相比，可是分数为何还这么不理想）

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

艾小卉 发表于 2015-5-19 09:14
楼主的帖子好励志，这两天状态不好。。。感觉自己要尽快调整，楼主加油！

我也是，从五一开始就状态不好！我们一起加油！

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

2015.5.19 comprehension note!
second time reading

Writing of the Iroquois nation, Smith has argued that through the chiefs’ council, tribal chiefs traditionally maintained complete control over the political affairs of both the Iroquois tribal league and the individual tribes belonging to the league, whereas the sole jurisdiction over religious affairs resided with the shamans. According to Smith, this division was maintained until the late nineteenth century, when the dissolution of the chiefs’ council and the consequent diminishment of the chiefs’ political power fostered their increasing involvement in religious affairs.
However, Smith fails to recognize that this division of power between the tribal chiefs and shamans was not actually rooted in Iroquois tradition; rather, it resulted from the Iroquois’ resettlement on reservations early in the nineteenth century. Prior to resettlement, the chiefs’ council controlled only the broad policy of the tribal league; individual tribes had institutions—most important, the longhouse—to govern their own affairs. In the longhouse, the tribe’s chief influenced both political and religious affairs.

S: before late 19 century
chiefs → the political affairs of both the Iroquois tribal league and the individual tribes
shamans → religious affairs
after 19 century
chiefs → increase religious, diminish political
A: before early 19 century(resettlement)
longhouse → govern, chief in longhouse → influenced both political and religious affairs


24.        The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) question the published conclusions of a scholar concerning the history of the Iroquois nation
the second paragraph talked about this topic, and thus the first paragraph serves as precise
(B) establish the relationship between an earlier scholar’s work and new anthropological research
no new anthropological research
(C) summarize scholarly controversy concerning an incident from Iroquois history
not mentioned the controversy
(D) trace two generations of scholarly opinion concerning Iroquois social institutions
not mentioned the other generation
(E) differentiate between Iroquois political practices and Iroquois religious practices
not mentioned

25.        It can be inferred that the author of the passage regards Smith’s argument as
(A) provocative and potentially useful, but flawed by poor organization
not mentioned poor organization, the flaw is wrong understanding about the origin of the division
(B) eloquently presented, but needlessly inflammatory
not mentioned inflammatory
(C) accurate in some of its particulars, but inaccurate with regard to an important point
right
(D) historically sound, but overly detailed and redundant
not mentioned detailed or redundant
(E) persuasive in its time, but now largely outdated
not mentioned

26.        The author of the passage implies that which of the following occurred after the Iroquois were resettled on reservations early in the nineteenth century?
Prior to resettlement, the chiefs’ council controlled only the broad policy of the tribal league
so the author only mentioned the chief's condition before 19 century. C, D, E don't focus on chief, thus must be wrong
(A) Chiefs became more involved in their tribes’ religious affairs.
contradict
(B) The authority of the chiefs’ council over the affairs of individual tribes increased.
right
(C) The political influence of the Iroquois shamans was diminished.
(D) Individual tribes coalesced into the Iroquois tribal league.
(E) The longhouse because a political rather than a religious institution.

27.        Which of the following best expresses an opinion presented by the author of the passage?
(A) Smith has overstated the importance of the political role played by Iroquois tribal chiefs in the nineteenth century.
(B) Smith has overlooked the fact that the Iroquois rarely allowed their shamans to exercise political authority.
(C) Smith has failed to explain why the chiefs’ council was dissolved late in the nineteenth century.
(D) Smith has failed to acknowledge the role prior to the nineteenth century of the Iroquois tribal chiefs in religious affairs.
right. Smith fails to recognize that this division of power between the tribal chiefs and shamans was not actually rooted in Iroquois tradition; rather, it resulted from the Iroquois’ resettlement on reservations early in the nineteenth century.
(E) Smith has failed to recognize that the very structure of Iroquois social institutions reflects religious beliefs.

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

2015.5.19 comprehension note!
second time reading

The age at which young children begin to make moral discriminations about harmful actions committed against themselves or others has been the focus of recent research into the moral development of children. Until recently, child psychologists supported pioneer developmentalist Jean. Piaget in his hypothesis that because of their immaturity, children under age seven do not take into account the intentions of a person committing accidental or deliberate harm, but rather simply assign punishment for transgressions on the basis of the magnitude of the negative consequences caused. According to Piaget, children under age seven occupy the first stage of moral development, which is characterized by moral absolutism (rules made by authorities must be obeyed) and imminent justice (if rules are broken, punishment will be meted out). Until young children mature, their moral judgments are based entirely on the effect rather than the cause of a transgression. However, in recent research, Keasey found that six-year-old children not only distinguish between accidental and intentional harm, but also judge intentional harm as naughtier, regardless of the amount of damage produced. Both of these findings seem to indicate that children, at an earlier age than Piaget claimed, advance into the second stage of moral development, moral autonomy, in which they accept social rules but view them as more arbitrary than do children in the first stage.

Keasey’s research raises two key questions for developmental psychologists about children under age seven: do they recognize justifications for harmful actions, and do they make distinctions between harmful acts that are preventable and those acts that have unforeseen harmful consequences? Studies indicate that justifications excusing harmful actions might include public duty, self-defense, and provocation. For example, Nesdale and Rule concluded that children were capable of considering whether or not an aggressor’s action was justified by public duty: five year olds reacted very differently to “Bonnie wrecks Ann’s pretend house” depending on whether Bonnie did it “so somebody won’t fall over it” or because Bonnie wanted “to make Ann feel bad.” Thus, a child of five begins to understand that certain harmful actions, though intentional, can be justified; the constraints of moral absolutism no longer solely guide their judgments.

Psychologists have determined that during kindergarten children learn to make subtle distinctions involving harm. Darley observed that among acts involving unintentional harm, six-year-old children just entering kindergarten could not differentiate between foreseeable, and thus preventable, harm and unforeseeable harm for which the perpetrator cannot be blamed. Seven months later, however, Darley found that these same children could make both distinctions, thus demonstrating that they had become morally autonomous.

21.        Which of the following best describes the passage as a whole?
(A) An outline for future research
not mentioned future research
(B) An expanded definition of commonly misunderstood terms
not expanded definition but revised definition
(C) An analysis of a dispute between two theorists
not dispute, but revised
(D) A discussion of research findings in an ongoing inquiry
right
(E) A confirmation of an established authority’s theory
no confirmation

22.        According to the passage, Darley found that after seven months of kindergarten six year olds acquired which of the following abilities?
Darley observed that among acts involving unintentional harm, six-year-old children just entering kindergarten could not differentiate between foreseeable, and thus preventable, harm and unforeseeable harm
Thus after seven month, 6 year old child could do what he once incapable of.
(A) Differentiating between foreseeable and unforeseeable harm
(B) Identifying with the perpetrator of a harmful action
(C) Justifying harmful actions that result from provocation
(D) Evaluating the magnitude of negative consequences resulting from the breaking of rules
(E) Recognizing the difference between moral absolutism and moral autonomy

23.        According to the passage, Piaget and Keasey would not have agreed on which of the following points?
(A) The kinds of excuses children give for harmful acts they commit
(B) The age at which children begin to discriminate between intentional and unintentional harm
right, P:7, K:earlier than 7
(C) The intentions children have in perpetrating harm
(D) The circumstances under which children punish harmful acts
(E) The justifications children recognize for mitigating punishment for harmful acts

24.        It can be inferred that the term “public duty” (line 33) in the context of the passage means which of the following?
(A) The necessity to apprehend perpetrators.
(B) The responsibility to punish transgressors
(C) An obligation to prevent harm to another
relative sentence: “so somebody won’t fall over it”
the author uses an example to explain the justifications excusing harmful actions. and the example in the passage related to public duty. so the explanation of Bonnie's action correspond to public duty's definition.
(D) The assignment of punishment for harmful action
(E) A justification for punishing transgressions

25.        According to the passage, Keasey’s findings support which of the following conclusions about six-year-old children?
relative sentence: the constraints of moral absolutism no longer solely guide their judgments.
so they step into moral autonomous phase.
(A) They have the ability to make autonomous moral judgments.
(B) They regard moral absolutism as a threat to their moral autonomy.
not mentioned
(C) They do not understand the concept of public duty.
not mentioned
(D) They accept moral judgment made by their peers more easily than do older children.
not mentioned
(E) They make arbitrary moral judgments.
not mentioned

26.        It can be inferred from the passage that Piaget would be likely to agree with which of the following statements about the punishment that children under seven assign to wrongdoing?
(A) The severity of the assigned punishment is determined by the perceived magnitude of negative consequences more than by any other factor.
relative sentence: but rather simply assign punishment for transgressions on the basis of the magnitude of the negative consequences caused
(B) The punishment is to be administered immediately following the transgression.
(C) The children assign punishment less arbitrarily than they do when they reach the age of moral autonomy.
(D) The punishment for acts of unintentional harm is less severe than it is for acts involving accidental harm.
(E) The more developmentally immature a child, the more severe the punishment that the child will assign.

27.        According to the passage, the research of Nesdale and Rule suggests which of the following about five-year-old children?
(A) Their reactions to intentional and accidental harm determine the severity of the punishments they assign.
the example is not children how to get punishment themselves, but to judge whether other people should get punishment
(B) They, as perpetrators of harmful acts, disregard the feelings of the children they harm.
not mentioned
(C) They take into account the motivations of actions when judging the behavior of other children.
right:  five year olds reacted very differently to “Bonnie wrecks Ann’s pretend house” depending on whether Bonnie did it “so somebody won’t fall over it” or because Bonnie wanted “to make Ann feel bad.”
(D) They view public duty as a justification for accidental, but not intentional, harm.
not mentioned
(E) They justify any action that protects them from harm.
not mentioned

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

2015.5.19 comprehension note!

Allen and Wolkowitz’s research challenges the common claim that homework—waged labor performed at home for a company—is primarily a response to women workers’ needs and preferences. By focusing on a limited geographical area in order to gather in-depth information, the authors have avoided the methodological pitfalls that have plagued earlier research on homework. Their findings disprove accepted notions about homeworkers: that they are unqualified for other jobs and that they use homework as a short-term strategy for dealing with child care.
The authors conclude that the persistence of homework cannot be explained by appeal to such notions, for, in fact, homeworkers do not differ sharply from other employed women. Most homeworkers would prefer to work outside the home but are constrained from doing so by lack of opportunity. In fact, homework is driven by employers’ desires to minimize fixed costs: homeworkers receive no benefits and are paid less than regular employees.

24.        The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) advocating a controversial theory
no advocating, only reputing
(B) presenting and challenging the results of a study
no presenting, only challenging
(C) describing a problem and proposing a solution
narrow the scope
(D) discussing research that opposes a widely accepted belief
right
(E) comparing several explanations for the same phenomenon
narrow the scope

25.        According to the passage, which of the following has been generally believed about homework?
(A) The benefits of homework accrue primarily to employers rather than to homeworkers.
(B) Homework is prevalent predominantly in rural areas.
(C) Homework is primarily a response to the preferences of women workers.
relative sentence: is primarily a response to women workers’ needs and preferences
(D) Few homeworkers rely on homework for the majority of their family income.
(E) Most homework is seasonal and part-time rather than full-time and year-round.

26.        Allen and Wolkowitz’s research suggests that each of the following is true of most homeworkers EXCEPT:
(A) They do not necessarily resort to homework as a strategy for dealing with child care.
they use homework as a short-term strategy for dealing with child care.
(B) Their family situations are not unlike those of other employed women.
homeworkers do not differ sharply from other employed women
(C) They are as well qualified as women who work outside the home.
homeworkers do not differ sharply from other employed women.
(D) They perform professional-level duties rather than manual tasks or piecework.
not mentioned
(E) They do not prefer homework to employment outside the home.
Allen and Wolkowitz’s research challenges the common claim that homework—waged labor performed at home for a company—is primarily a response to women workers’ needs and preferences

27.        The passage suggests which of the following about previous research on homework?
(A) It was conducted primarily with women who did not have extensive household responsibilities or care for small children at home.
(B) It was conducted with homeworkers and companies over a large geographical area.
By focusing on a limited geographical area in order to gather in-depth information, the authors have avoided the methodological pitfalls that have plagued earlier research on homework
(C) It indicated that women homeworkers had numerous opportunities to work outside the home.
(D) It indicated that homeworkers usually work for companies that are close to their homes.
(E) It indicated that homework was financially advantageous to large companies.

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

2015.5.19 comprehension note!
second time reading

The whole biosphere, like the individual organisms that live inside it, exists in a chemically dynamic state. In this homeostatic system, a great number of organic compounds are synthesized, transformed, and decomposed continuously; together, these processes constitute the major parts of the carbon cycle. For the smooth operation of this cycle, degradation is just as important as synthesis: the green plants produce great quantities of polymers, such as cellulose, and innumerable other compounds like alkaloids, terpenes, and flavonoids, that green plants cannot use as sources of energy during respiration. The release of the carbon in these compounds for recycling depends almost entirely on the action of both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria and certain types of fungi. Some bacteria and fungi possess the unique and extremely important biochemical asset of being able to catalyze the oxidation of numerous inert products, thereby initiating reaction sequences that produce carbon dioxide and so return much carbon to a form that actively enters into life cycles once again.

25.        The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions about the carbon cycle?
I.        What are some of the compounds that are broken down in the carbon cycle?
the green plants produce great quantities of polymers, such as cellulose, and innumerable other compounds like alkaloids, terpenes, and flavonoids, that green plants cannot use as sources of energy during respiration.
II.        Why are some compounds that are involved in the carbon cycle less reactive than others?
not mentioned reactive
III.        What role do bacteria and fungi play in the carbon cycle?
Some bacteria and fungi possess the unique and extremely important biochemical asset of being able to catalyze the oxidation of numerous inert products
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only

26.        The author implies that which of the following is the primary reason that degradation is as important as synthesis to the smooth operation of the carbon cycle?
(A) Most of the polymers and organic compounds found in the plant kingdom are chemically unstable.
(B) The synthesis of some organic material deprives life processes of an energy source.
(C) Decomposition permits the recycling of carbon that would otherwise be fixed in certain substances.
relative sentence: green plants cannot use as sources of energy during respiration.
(D) Many organisms cannot use plants as a source of food, but can feed on bacteria and fungi.
(E) Bacteria and fungi could not survive if some carbon compounds were not degraded.

27.        The author’s contention about the importance of bacteria and fungi in the production of energy for life processes would be most clearly strengthened if which of the following were found to be true?
(A) Both aerobes and anaerobes provide sources of energy through the decomposition of organic material.
not relative
(B) Most compounds containing carbon are unavailable as energy sources except to some bacteria and fungi.
strengthen
(C) Bacteria and fungi break down inert material in ways that do not involve oxidation.
not relative
(D) Many compounds remain inert, even in the presence of bacteria and fungi.
weaken
(E) Bacteria and fungi assist in the synthesis of many organic compounds.
not strengthen

wfxmfwjwUID: 3582171

519
阅读9110,9202,9204,9210.
从下午开始走神，然后就去带着负罪感玩耍了，太罪恶了，晚上分析了一下原因，可能很大一部分原因是阅读的正确率不好，为什么感觉懂了的文章错这么多，心碎啊。
但是怎么能就这么服软呢，修养精神，重新再来才是对的，fighting！！！

ampireUID: 3509988

我的目标是明年考G，目前和大家一起努力学习

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

ampire 发表于 2015-5-20 07:51
我的目标是明年考G，目前和大家一起努力学习

加油！
PS大家的经验备考周期不要太长，速战速决

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

2015.5.20 comprehension note!

I was sleepy and couldn't focus on the passage entirely! But how can I do so many wrong answers? Because I am confused with the differences between central idea and primary purpose. Check this passage again

It has long been known that the rate of oxidative metabolism (the process that uses oxygen to convert food into energy) in any animal has a profound effect on its living patterns. The high metabolic rate of small animals, for example, gives them sustained power and activity per unit of weight, but at the cost of requiring constant consumption of food and water. Very large animals, with their relatively low metabolic rates, can survive well on a sporadic food supply, but can generate little metabolic energy per gram of body weight. If only oxidative metabolic rate is considered, therefore, one might assume that smaller, more active, animals could prey on larger ones, at least if they attacked in groups. Perhaps they could if it were not for anaerobic glycolysis, the great equalizer.
Anaerobic glycolysis is a process in which energy is produced, without oxygen, through the breakdown of muscle glycogen into lactic acid and adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the energy provider. The amount of energy that can be produced anaerobically is a function of the amount of glycogen present—in all vertebrates about 0.5 percent of their muscles’ wet weight. Thus the anaerobic energy reserves of a vertebrate are proportional to the size of the animal. If, for example, some predators had attacked a 100-ton dinosaur, normally torpid, the dinosaur would have been able to generate almost instantaneously, via anaerobic glycolysis, the energy of 3,000 humans at maximum oxidative metabolic energy production. This explains how many large species have managed to compete with their more active neighbors: the compensation for a low oxidative metabolic rate is glycolysis.
There are limitations, however, to this compensation. The glycogen reserves of any animal are good, at most, for only about two minutes at maximum effort, after which only the normal oxidative metabolic source of energy remains. With the conclusion of a burst of activity, the lactic acid level is high in the body fluids, leaving the large animal vulnerable to attack until the acid is reconverted, via oxidative metabolism, by the liver into glucose, which is then sent (in part) back to the muscles for glycogen resynthesis. During this process the enormous energy debt that the animal has run up through anaerobic glycolysis must be repaid, a debt that is proportionally much greater for the larger vertebrates than for the smaller ones. Whereas the tiny shrew can replace in minutes the glycogen used for maximum effort, for example, the gigantic dinosaur would have required more than three weeks. It might seem that this interminably long recovery time in a large vertebrate would prove a grave disadvantage for survival. Fortunately, muscle glycogen is used only when needed and even then only in whatever quantity is necessary. Only in times of panic or during mortal combat would the entire reserves be consumed.

20.        The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) refute a misconception about anaerobic glycolysis
no refutation
(B) introduce a new hypothesis about anaerobic glycolysis
no new hypothesis
(C) describe the limitations of anaerobic glycolysis
narrow the scope
(D) analyze the chemistry of anaerobic glycolysis and its similarity to oxidative metabolism
no such comparison
(E) explain anaerobic glycolysis and its effects on animal survival
right

21.        According to the author, glycogen is crucial to the process of anaerobic glycolysis because glycogen
(A) increases the organism’s need for ATP
(B) reduces the amount of ATP in the tissues
(C) is an inhibitor of the oxidative metabolic production of ATP
(D) ensures that the synthesis of ATP will occur speedily
(E) is the material from which ATP is derived
relative sentence: The amount of energy that can be produced anaerobically is a function of the amount of glycogen present

22.        According to the author, a major limitation of anaerobic glycolysis is that it can
(A) produce in large animals more lactic acid than the liver can safely reconvert
(B) necessitate a dangerously long recovery period in large animals
relative sentence: It might seem that this interminably long recovery time in a large vertebrate would prove a grave disadvantage for survival.
(C) produce energy more slowly than it can be used by large animals
(D) consume all of the available glycogen regardless of need
(E) reduce significantly the rate at which energy is produced by oxidative metabolism

23.        The passage suggests that the total anaerobic energy reserves of a vertebrate are proportional to the vertebrate’s size because
(A) larger vertebrates conserve more energy than smaller vertebrates
(B) larger vertebrates use less oxygen per unit weight than smaller vertebrates
(C) the ability of a vertebrate to consume food is a function of its size
(D) the amount of muscle tissue in a vertebrate is directly related to its size
in all vertebrates about 0.5 percent of their muscles’ wet weight
(E) the size of a vertebrate is proportional to the quantity of energy it can utilize


24.        The author suggests that, on the basis of energy production, a 100-ton dinosaur would have been markedly vulnerable to which of the following?
I.        Repeated attacks by a single smaller, more active adversary
repeated can means attacks at different day...
II.        Sustained attack by numerous smaller, more active adversaries
III.        An attack by an individual adversary of similar size
(A) II only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

25.        It can be inferred from the passage that the time required to replenish muscle glycogen following anaerobic glycolysis is determined by which of the following factors?
I.        Rate of oxidative metabolism
II.        Quantity of lactic acid in the body fluids
III.        Percentage of glucose that is returned to the muscles
high percentage means more glucose needed to be converted...
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

26.        The author is most probably addressing which of the following audiences?
(A) College students in an introductory course on animal physiology
physiology is how animal acts, that's right
(B) Historians of science investigating the discovery of anaerobic glycolysis
not mentioned the discovery
(C) Graduate students with specialized training in comparative anatomy
not mentioned anatomy
(D) Zoologists interested in prehistoric animals
those prehistoric animals are only examples for the explanation of another topic
(E) Biochemists doing research on oxidative metabolism
too superficial

27.        Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
Look at the structure sentences of second and third paragraphs.
The passage first talks about Anaerobic glycolysis, then talks about the limitation and compensation for this limitation.
(A) The disadvantage of a low oxidative metabolic rate in large animals can be offset by their ability to convert substantial amounts of glycogen into energy.
(B) The most significant problem facing animals that have used anaerobic glycolysis for energy is the resynthesis of its by-product, glucose, into glycogen.
narrow the scope
(C) The benefits to animals of anaerobic glycolysis are offset by the profound costs that must be paid.
the sentence is not right
(D) The major factor ensuring that a large animal will triumph over a smaller animal is the large animal’s ability to produce energy via anaerobic glycolysis.
not mentioned will triumph
(E) The great differences that exist in metabolic rates between species of small animals and species of large animals can have important effects on the patterns of their activities.
this is the purpose of the passage, however central idea refers to the detailed content, which is A

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

2015.5.20 comprehension note!
second time reading

When the same parameters and quantitative theory are used to analyze both termite colonies and troops of rhesus macaques, we will have a unified science of sociobiology. Can this ever really happen? As my own studies have advanced, I have been increasingly impressed with the functional similarities between insect and vertebrate societies and less so with the structural differences that seem, at first glance, to constitute such an immense gulf between them. Consider for a moment termites and macaques. Both form cooperative groups that occupy territories. In both kinds of society there is a well-marked division of labor. Members of both groups communicate to each other hunger, alarm, hostility, caste status or rank, and reproductive status. From the specialist’s point of view, this comparison may at first seem facile—or worse. But it is out of such deliberate oversimplification that the beginnings of a general theory are made.

25.        Which of the following best summarizes the author’s main point?
(A) Oversimplified comparisons of animal societies could diminish the likelihood of developing a unified science of sociobiology.
contradict
(B) Understanding the ways in which animals as different as termites and rhesus macaques resemble each other requires train in both biology and sociology.
not mentioned
(C) Most animals organize themselves into societies that exhibit patterns of group behavior similar to those of human societies.
not mentioned human societies
(D) Animals as different as termites and rhesus macaques follow certain similar and predictable patterns of behavior.
narrow the scope, this is only an example
(E) A study of the similarities between insect and vertebrate societies could provide the basis for a unified science of sociobiology.
right

26.        The author’s attitude toward the possibility of a unified theory in sociobiology is best described as which of the following?
first, the author's attitude is possitive
second, non-scientific attitude like B won't be the right answer forever
(A) Guarded optimism
(B) Unqualified enthusiasm
(C) Objective indifference
(D) Resignation
(E) Dissatisfaction

27.        In discussing insect and vertebrate societies, the author suggests which of the following?
(A) A distinguishing characteristic of most insect and vertebrate societies is a well-marked division of labor.
not mentioned most
(B) The caste structure of insect societies is similar to that of vertebrate societies.
not mentioned caste structure
(C) Most insect and vertebrate societies form cooperative groups in order to occupy territory.
not mentioned most
(D) The means of communication among members of insect societies is similar to that among members of vertebrate societies.
it is the content, not the means
(E) There are significant structural differences between insect and vertebrate societies.
relative sentence: less so with the structural differences that seem, at first glance, to constitute such an immense gulf between them
This sentence certify the existence of differences, that's why the author feel less surprisingly

wfxmfwjwUID: 3582171

无敌浩克One 发表于 2015-5-20 11:24
2015.5.20 schedule supervision

9:40-10:50 surfing internet(pummel myself!!!)

好可怜的兔子，快放了它···
lz不要焦躁，沉下心开始看一会书，奇迹马上就要出现了！

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

wfxmfwjw 发表于 2015-5-20 15:18
好可怜的兔子，快放了它···
lz不要焦躁，沉下心开始看一会书，奇迹马上就要出现了！

阅读速度就是提不上来。。。唉。。。读的快就错的多。。。也不知道还要练多久才能进步T_T
你今天收获怎么样？

无敌浩克OneUID: 3605802

2015.5.20 comprehension note!
second time reading. still can't read it very fast. I can feel that sub-vocalization impedes my speed greatly!!But how to overcome this!! How!!!

The deep sea typically has a sparse fauna dominated by tiny worms and crustaceans, with an even sparser distribution of larger animals. However, near hydrothermal vents, areas of the ocean where warm water emerges from subterranean sources, live remarkable densities of huge clams, blind crabs, and fish.
Most deep-sea faunas rely for food on particulate matter, ultimately derived from photosynthesis, falling from above. The food supplies necessary to sustain the large vent communities, however, must be many times the ordinary fallout. The first reports describing vent faunas proposed two possible sources of nutrition: bacterial chemosynthesis, production of food by bacteria using energy derived from chemical changes, and advection, the drifting of food materials from surrounding regions. Later, evidence in support of the idea of intense local chemosynthesis was accumulated: hydrogen sulfide was found in vent water; many vent-site bacteria were found to be capable of chemosynthesis; and extremely large concentrations of bacteria were found in samples of vent water thought to be pure. This final observation seemed decisive. If such astonishing concentrations of bacteria were typical of vent outflow, then food within the vent would dwarf any contribution from advection. Hence, the widely quoted conclusion was reached that bacterial chemosynthesis provides the foundation for hydrothermal-vent food chains—an exciting prospect because no other communities on Earth are independent of photosynthesis.
There are, however, certain difficulties with this interpretation. For example, some of the large sedentary organisms associated with vents are also found at ordinary deep-sea temperatures many meters from the nearest hydrothermal sources. This suggests that bacterial chemosynthesis is not a sufficient source of nutrition for these creatures. Another difficulty is that similarly dense populations of large deep-sea animals have been found in the proximity of “smokers”—vents where water emerges at temperatures up to 350℃. No bacteria can survive such heat, and no bacteria were found there. Unless smokers are consistently located near more hospitable warm-water vents, chemosynthesis can account for only a fraction of the vent faunas. It is conceivable, however, that these large, sedentary organisms do in fact feed on bacteria that grow in warm-water vents, rise in the vent water, and then rain in peripheral areas to nourish animals living some distance from the warm-water vents.
Nonetheless advection is a more likely alternative food source. Research has demonstrated that advective flow, which originates near the surface of the ocean where suspended particulate matter accumulates, transports some of that matter and water to the vents. Estimates suggest that for every cubic meter of vent discharge, 350 milligrams of particulate organic material would be advected into the vent area. Thus, for an average-sized vent, advection could provide more than 30 kilograms of potential food per day. In addition, it is likely that small live animals in the advected water might be killed or stunned by thermal and/or chemical shock, thereby contributing to the food supply of vents.
16.        The passage provides information for answering which of the following questions?
(A) What causes warm-water vents to form?
(B) Do vent faunas consume more than do deep-sea faunas of similar size?
(C) Do bacteria live in the vent water of smokers?
(D) What role does hydrogen sulfide play in chemosynthesis?
(E) What accounts for the locations of deep-sea smokers?
17.        The information in the passage suggests that the majority of deep-sea faunas that live in nonvent habitats have which of the following characteristics?
(A) They do not normally feed on particles of food in the water.
(B) They are smaller than many vent faunas.
(C) They are predators.
(D) They derive nutrition from a chemosynthetic food source.
(E) They congregate around a single main food source.
18.        The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) describe a previously unknown natural phenomenon
(B) reconstruct the evolution of a natural phenomenon
(C) establish unequivocally the accuracy of a hypothesis
(D) survey explanations for a natural phenomenon and determine which is best supported by evidence
(E) entertain criticism of the author’s research and provide an effective response
19.        Which of the following does the author cite as a weakness in the argument that bacterial chemosynthesis provides the foundation for the food chains at deep-sea vents?
(A) Vents are colonized by some of the same animals found in other areas of the ocean floor.
(B) Vent water does not contain sufficient quantities of hydrogen sulfide.
(C) Bacteria cannot produce large quantities of food quickly enough.
(D) Large concentrations of minerals are found in vent water.
(E) Some bacteria found in the vents are incapable of chemosynthesis.
20.        Which of the following is information supplied in the passage that would support the statement that the food supplies necessary to sustain vent communities must be many times that of ordinary fallout?
I.        Large vent faunas move from vent to vent in search of food.
II.        Vent faunas are not able to consume food produced by photosynthesis.
III.        Vents are more densely populated than are other deep-sea areas.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
21.        The author refers to “smokers” (line 38) most probably in order to
(A) show how thermal shock can provide food for some vent faunas by stunning small animals
(B) prove that the habitat of most deep-sea animals is limited to warm-water vents
(C) explain how bacteria carry out chemosynthesis
(D) demonstrate how advection compensates for the lack of food sources on the seafloor
(E) present evidence that bacterial chemosynthesis may be an inadequate source of food for some vent faunas
22.        Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the particulate matter that is carried down from the surface of the ocean?
(A) It is the basis of bacterial chemosynthesis in the vents.
(B) It may provide an important source of nutrition for vent faunas.
(C) It may cause the internal temperature of the vents to change significantly.
(D) It is transported as large aggregates of particles.
(E) It contains hydrogen sulfide.

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2015.5.20 summary!!

I started train my comprehension speed!
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material: LSAT passage